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Cisco 640-721 certificate guidance

2011-11-10T23:42:00.000-08:00

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The fifth step is to stay certified. Some Cisco certification requires that you pass updated exams and others accept continuing education credits. Still others are good for life and never expire. Make a clear idea of them.
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2011-10-11T22:51:00.000-07:00

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Cisco CCNA Certification Exams free study guides

2011-08-05T02:30:00.000-07:00

640-802 Cisco Certified Network Associate
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640-721 Implementing Cisco Unified Wireless Networking Essentials (I…
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2011-07-14T05:40:00.000-07:00

VUE/Prometric Code: 640-802
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The Cisco CCNA certification (Cisco Certified Network Associates) is an introductory level exam for those relatively new to Cisco networking. The CCNA exam by Cisco systems was designed for the candidates who can install, configure and administer small to medium sized LANs and WANs. The CCNA is a prerequisite for the some higher level certifications like the CCNP. Job roles for the individuals who are CCNA certified include network administrators, system managers, and network consultants.

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2011-06-13T04:34:00.000-07:00

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ex0-101 – ITIL Foundation v.3
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CCNA Security Certification: Gateway to Success

2011-02-15T22:39:00.000-08:00

CCNA security certification validates your expertise in securing Cisco networks. Cisco Certified Network Associate Security (CCNA) is an associate level certification for network professionals. It helps the network professionals to meet the ever growing demand of security requirements. It widens the road to bright career opportunities for entry level students. CCNA security certification is the advanced level skill for network security students. Especially the CCNA discovery and CCNA exploration students benefit a lot from the Cisco Certified Network Associate Security (CCNA) certification. It provides the complete knowledge to identify and extenuate security threats. Cisco Certified Network Associate Security certified is able to develop security infrastructure to cut down the vulnerability of the network to zero percent.

CCNA security certification syllabus comprises of security technologies used by Cisco. The curriculum teaches how to install, troubleshoot and monitor network devices for the maintenance of integrity and confidentiality of the network.

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CCNA Voice Certification

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2011-01-17T04:08:00.000-08:00

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Related Cisco Certification Exams:

640-802 Cisco Certified Network Associate

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640-822 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1

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642-832 Troubleshooting And Maintaing Cisco IP Networks

642-902 Implementing Cisco IP Routing

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2011-01-10T08:50:00.000-08:00

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Pass for Sure Unified Communications Contact Center Express.(UCCX)

2010-10-20T07:04:00.000-07:00

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Breathing Cisco 642-551 question question

2010-09-27T10:33:00.003-07:00

642-551 is the code of Securing Cisco Network Devices Exam(SND) which contains 62 Q&As. It is associated with a Cisco Cisco certification. Cheat-Test 642-551 brain dumps exam update time is Sep 07th,2010, and the lowest price of this exam is $79.00.

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2010-09-27T10:33:00.001-07:00

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2010-07-24T21:31:00.000-07:00

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Cisco CCNA 640-553 test free pass4sure download

2010-06-24T22:59:00.000-07:00

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642-586 - Advanced Wireless LAN for System Engineers

Cisco CCNA Wireless free pass4sure download

2010-06-23T04:59:00.000-07:00

CCNA wireless is an associate-level certification offered by Cisco. CCNA wireless stands for Cisco Certified Network Associate Wireless. This valuable credential verifies an individual’s knowledge and expertise regarding implementation and configuration of networking infrastructure. It also validates individual’s abilities of monitoring and troubleshooting wireless local area networks (LANs) especially those utilizing Cisco equipments. Networking professionals having CCNA wireless certification are capable of supporting wireless networks on Cisco wireless LAN in Server Message Block (SMB). Earning of this certification helps IT professionals in career development, learning the latest skills, and receiving high salaries. CCNA wireless certification is a good way to become skilled at wireless networking techniques if anyone has no practical experience of job.

Basic prerequisites for CCNA Wireless certification exam include valid CCIE (Cisco Certified Internetwork Expert) and CCNA (Cisco Certified Network Associate) certification. Candidates are required to pass 640-721 Exam - IUWNE exam in order to get CCNA wireless credential. IUWNE (Implementing Cisco Unified Wireless Networking Essentials) is the Cisco recommended training course for this exam. Validation time period of this certification is three years. To recertify, networking professionals have to pass following tests.

CCNA voice/wireless/security Concentration test
Cisco Specialist 642 Professional level test
Current Cisco CCIE/CCDE written test

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2010-04-17T08:46:00.001-07:00

Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Unified Wireless Network Essentials
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Related Cisco products:
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2009-10-12T09:46:00.000-07:00

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1. Which of the following statements outline the correct way to implement a nonstandard softkey template?
A. Select a softkey template; copy the template and rename it; insert it; modify the template and update the changes.
B. Select a softkey template; rename it; modify it and update the changes.
C. Select the default softkey template, rename it; insert it; modify it and update the changes.
D. Select add softkey template, name it; update it; modify the template and update the changes.
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2. Which port(s) must be opened on an IOS firewall to allow successful MGCP (Media Gateway Control Protocol) message exchanges between a CallManager and an IOS MGCP PRI gateway?
A. TCP 2000 and TCP 2002
B. TCP 2427 and UDP 2428
C. UDP 2427
D. UDP 2427 and UDP 2428
E. UDP 2427 and TCP 2428
Answer: E

3. There are 2 remote sites and one main site. Each site has a CME router with many IP phones in an IPT deployment. The Network Administrator wants to provide all of the phones voicemail access using CUE. Which way can CUE be deployed?
A. Cisco Unity Express and the CME gateway at each site must be collocated in the same router chassis providing voicemail access to local IP phones registered to local CME.
B. One Cisco Unity Express can be used at the main site with CME router providing voicemail access to all the 3 sites.
C. One Cisco Unity Express with CME can be used at the main site to provide voicemail access to the IP phones at the main site. Another Cisco Unity Express with CME can be used at one of the remote sites to provide voicemail access for all of the IP phones at the two remote sites.
D. Cisco Unity Express and the CME gateway at each site may NOT be collocated in the same router chassis providing a voicemail access to local IP phones registered to local CME.
Answer: A

4. Which of the following are NOT true statements about Certificate Trust List (CTL) File? (Choose 2)
A. It is a list of devices and credentials that a phone should trust on the network.
B. The CTL file is signed by administrator workstation password.
C. It contains identity, public key and role information.
D. Phones need to trust all entries in the CTL file which could be CCM, TFTP, CAPF, etc. E.The CTL file is loaded to the phone each time when authentication is required.
F. The CTL is created by CTL Client on administrator workstation.
Answer: B, E

5. A CallManager Group can provide which two features to your call processing system? (Choose 2)
A. Support for SRST in remote offices
B. Enables you to distribute the control of devices across multiple Cisco CallManagers
C. Enables you to distribute voice mail support across multiple Unity servers
D. Support for redundancy by enabling you to designate a primary and backup Cisco CallManagers for each group
E. Support for control of IPMA across primary and backup Cisco CallManagers for each group
Answer: B, D

6. When comparing SIP, H.323, and MGCP, and SCCP in a VoIP deployment, which Protocol will satisfy the following requirements: Requirement 1: It has a mechanism for a centralized dialplan Requirement 2: The endpoints are considered to be unintelligent Requirement 3: The protocol must be textbased
A. SIP
B. H.323
C. MGCP
D. SCCP
Answer: C

7. Which 2 are NOT functions performed by Cisco Media Streaming App Service?
A. Provides SCCP stack for 4 software devices: ANN, CFB, MOH, and MTP
B. Supports DB change notification processing
C. Converts new MOH source files to separate WAV files for MOH codecs
D. Provides SDI trace, event logs, and Perfmon counters
E. Adjusts volume levels of MOH source files
F. Provides audio data from WAV files: ANN, MOH
Answer: C, E

8. An IP phone is connected to a Cisco inline power switch Port. Switch is running IOS image on it. The switch port is acting as a trunk and is running both Voice and Data VLAN configuration on it. We would like the IP Phone connected to switch port in voice VLAN to set layer 2 priority of all the packets coming from PC to default 0. Which IOS CLI in Interface Port configuration on Inline power switch can help us achieve our objective?
A. switchport access priority extend cos 0
B. switchport priority extend cos 0
C. switchport trunk priority cos 0
D. switchport mode access priority extend cos 0
E. mls qos priority extend cos 0
F. switchport access extend cos 0
Answer: B

9. A company has a headquarters with a centralized CallManager and 5 remote offices. All the remote offices have extensions in the range of 10001150. To allow interoffice calls each office has been assigned a 3 digit site code. To call between sites, users will dial an access code followed by the 3 digit site code and the extension. Which of the following describes how these interoffice access codes should be configured?
A. A translation pattern is created for each office and placed in a partition available to all phones. The translation pattern strips the access code and site code and is assigned a Calling Search Space that includes only the phones located in the office.
B. A translation pattern is created for each office and is placed in a partition available to the phones at that
office. The translation pattern strips the access code and site code and is assigned to Calling Search Space that includes all local phones.
C. A route pattern is created for each office and placed in a partition available to all phones. The route pattern strips the access code and the site code and routes the call to the remote office's gateway.
D. A route pattern is created for each office and placed in a partition available to phones at that office. The route pattern strips the access code and site code and routes the call to the remote office's gateway.
Answer: B

10. Which type of media resources would be required for a single site call processing model?
A. MTP
B. Locations
C. Regions
D. Transcoders
Answer: A

11. Which method could be used to determine if there is a JTAPI memory leak in a CallManager server?
A. Look at the physical memory available of the server.
B. Review all CCM User logs
C. Check for changes to IP phone settings, like ring settings reverting to default values
D. Determine if dialing the voice mail pilot number fails to connect to voice mail
E. Check for an increasing number of fast busys when dialing to the PSTN
Answer: A

12. Which statement does NOT describe dialing domain functionality in Cisco Unity?
A. Dialing domains are multiple Unity servers that are handling subscribers that are on a single switch or networked switch
B. All users in the dialing domain should be able to pick up their phones and dial each other directly without having to dial trunk access codes or use outside lines.
C. Dialing domains are also necessary if the Unity servers involved don't have overlapping dial plans.
D. Dialing domain IDs are stored on the primary location object. Multiple primary location objects with the same value for this ID make up a dialing domain.
E. All delivery locations get the same dialing domain ID as the primary location of the box they are created on.
Answer: C

13. Two divisions in your company need to exchange Unity voice messages using VPIM. Calls from Division A to Division B are made using a site code of "919" followed by the recipient's 4 digit extension. The primary extension in Unity is the user's four digit extension. Which of the following configurations on Division A's Unity server will allow messages to be forwarded between Unity systems using the same seven digit dialing that is used to place direct calls? (Choose 3)
A. Add the seven digit number as an alternate extension to each VPIM subscriber
B. Configure the Extension on the VPIM subscriber to "919" plus the recipient's four digit extension
C. Configure the Remote Mailbox Number on the VPIM subscriber to the recipient's four digit extension
D. Configure the Remote Phone Prefix to "919"
E. Configure the Dial ID to "919"
Answer: B, C, E

14. When configuring IP Manager Assistant (IPMA) in a shared line mode, how are the manager and assistant Directory Numbers (DN) configured?
A. The manager and assistant both share the same directory number (DN).
B. The manager and assistant have separate directory numbers (DN), but share an IPMA directory number.
C. The manager and assistant each have separate directory numbers (DN).
D. The manager and assistant share a directory number (DN) and an IP Manager Assistant (IPMA) directory number.
Answer: A

15. What occurs if the system clocks are not synchronized between the sender and receiver of an RTP stream?
A. Packets can be placed in sequence but jitter cannot be compensated for.
B. Packets cannot be reordered for sequence and jitter cannot be compensated for.
C. Jitter can be compensated for, but packets cannot be reordered if they arrive out of sequence.
D. Packets may be reordered and jitter may be compensated for as the timestamp is not related to the system time.
E. When the RTP stream is opened, the sender and receiver synchronize their clocks before the stream commences so that packet sequencing and dejitter will function correctly.
Answer: D

16. Which 3 functions are NOT performed by a Route Pattern? (Choose 3)
A. Points to the actual IP phone
B. Matches dialed number for external calls
C. Performs digit manipulation
D. Points to a route list for routing
E. Chooses path for call routing
F. Points to prioritized route groups
nswer: A, E, F

17. Which one of the following does NOT state Multicast Technologies Advantages?
A. Enhanced Efficiency: controls network traffic and reduces server and CPU loads
B. Optimized Performance: eliminates traffic redundancy
C. Distributed Applications: makes multipoint applications possible
D. Bandwidthconserving technology that reduces traffic by simultaneously delivering a single stream of information to thousands of corporate recipients and homes
E. Prevent Denial of service (DoS) attacks in the networks
Answer: E

18. Why can't TCP be used for transferring audio and video over UDP? (Choose 5)
A. TCP does not have a mechanism for sufficiently long buffering and adequate average throughput.
B. Reliable transmission is inappropriate for delaysensitive data such as realtime audio and video.
C. TCP cannot support multicast.
D. The TCP congestion control mechanisms decreases the congestion window when packet losses are detected ("slow start").
E. TCP headers are larger than a UDP header.
F. TCP does not contain the necessary timestamp and encoding information needed by the receiving application.
Answer: B, C, D, E, F

19. The IOS command "call rsvpsync resvtimer 10" is used to set the timer on the:
A. Originating VoIP gateway for completing RSVP reservation setups within 10 seconds
B. Originating and terminating VoIP gateway for completing RSVP reservation setups within 10 seconds
C. Terminating VoIP gateway for completing RSVP reservation setups within 10 seconds
D. VoIP gatekeeper for completing RSVP reservation setups within 10 seconds
Answer: C

20. Calculate the percentage of overall bandwidth saved (at Layer 3) by cRTP for a G.729 VoIP call packetized at 50 pps.
A. Approximately 60%
B. Approximately 50%
C. Approximately 40%
D. Approximately 30%
E. Approximately 20%
Answer: A

21. Refer to the exhibit. While debugging a problem on SIP network, one of the messages displayed when the debug ccsip messages command is entered is shown in the exhibit. What information will the server return to the caller?

A. The acceptable media type
B. A list of acceptable media types
C. A list of acceptable formats
D. A correct directory number
E. An acceptable language code
Answer: C

22. Refer to the exhibit. Two ports on a 3600 gateway platform are stuck in the EM_PARK state.
What workaround can be configured on the router to help alleviate this situation?

A. Fake Answer
B. A GetDigit Timeout value
C. A call park watchdog timer
D. Configure the interface for winkstart signaling
Answer: A

23. Based upon your understanding of an SCCP 7960 IP phone bootup sequence, what must be true for the CallManager to send the IP phone an SEPDefault.cnf file instead of an SEP (mac address) file? (Choose 3)
A. The IP phone must request SEPDefault.cnf file explictly.
B. Auto Registration must be enabled.
C. The IP phone must be configured in the "default" partition.
D. The IP phone should not have previously registered with this CallManager cluster. E.The IP phone must have previously registered, but the IP Phone was power cycled.
Answer: A, B, D

24. Two type of RSVP reservation types are:
A. Distinct and Shared
B. Same and Distinct
C. Shared and nonshared
D. Reservation and Path
Answer: A

25. A CME site has a group of attendants that answer calls for 3 different companies. The dialplan for the CME site is listed below. CompanyA: 4085551111 CompanyB: 4085552222 CompanyC: 4085553333 Attendant
A: 100 Attendant
B: 101 Attendant
C: 102 Identify the configuration that will meet the following criteria:
1. Incoming DNIS call to company A, B or C's dialin number will hunt to the attendant that has been idle the longest.
2. The name of the company that was called should appear on the phone display. 3. Attendants can logout so that calls to Company A, B or C will bypass their phone.
A. telephonyservice directory entry 1 4085551111 name CompanyA directory entry 2 4085552222 name CompanyB directory entry 3 4085553333 name CompanyC service dnis dirlookup ephonehunt 1 longestidle pilot 105 secondary 408555.... list 100,101,102 preference 1 timeout 5
B. telephonyservice directory entry 1 4085551111 name CompanyA directory entry 2 4085552222 name
CompanyB directory entry 3 4085553333 name CompanyC service dnis dirlookup ephonehunt 1
longestidle pilot 408555.... list 100,101,102 preference 1 timeout 5
C. ephonedn 1 number 100 secondary 408555.... name CompanyA preference 1 no huntstop ! ephonedn 2 number 101 secondary 408555.... name CompanyB preference 2 no huntstop ! ephonedn 3 name CompanyA number 102 secondary 408555.... preference 2 no huntstop
D. ephonedn 1 number 408555.... name CompanyA preference 1 no huntstop ! ephonedn 2 number 408555.... name CompanyB preference 2 no huntstop ! ephonedn 3 name CompanyC number 408555.... preference 3 no huntstop
E. telephonyservice directory entry 1 4085551111 name CompanyA directory entry 2 4085552222 name
CompanyB directory entry 3 4085553333 name CompanyC service dnis dirlookup ephonedn 1 number 100 secondary 4085551111 preference 1 no huntstop ! ephonedn 2 number 101 secondary 4085552222 preference 2 no huntstop ! ephonedn 3 number 102 secondary 4085553333 preference 2 no huntstop Answer: A

26. A software media termination point should be deployed to support which call processing models and services?
A. To support remote sites for multisite distributed call processing models and H.323v1.
B. To support remote sites in a centralized call processing model and H.323v1.
C. To support single site call processing models and H.323v1.
D. To support IP Telephony Service Providers and H.323v1.
Answer: C

27. Which of the following are mandatory subcommands under callmanagerfallback and will help an IP Phone register to an IOS router in SRST mode? (Choose 3)
A. accesscode
B. dialplanpattern
C. ip sourceaddress
D. keepalive
E. maxdn
F. maxephones
Answer: C, E, F

28. Consider the exhibit. A call placed from extension 2000 to extension 2001 is forwarded to voicemail. Instead of the greeting for 2001, the default greeting is heard. The caller is able to select extension 2001 from the voicemail AA and leave a message. From the SMDI trace, what is the most likely cause of this problem?

A. The 'External Phone Number Mask' for extension 2001 is not set correctly.
B. The 'OutputExternalFormat' parameter is not set correctly.
C. The 'OutputDnFormat' parameter is not set correctly.
D. The 'InputDnSignificantDigits' parameter is not set correctly.
E. The LTN does not match the port the call is forwarded on.
Answer: E

29. Which would be situations where configuring and using a DNS server would be advisable in an IP telephony network. (Choose 2)
A. If Network Address Translation (NAT) is required for communication between the IP phones and Cisco CallManager.
B. DNS names resolution is required within the cluster deployed in a single site.
C. DNS names resolution is required for MultiSite WAN Deployments with Centralized Call Processing.
D. DNS names resolution is required for MultiSite WAN Deployments with Distributed Call Processing.
E. IP telephony disaster recovery network configurations.
F. The size of the DNS response exceeds 1500 bytes, so only the first 1500 bytes are returned by the DNS server.
G. The MTU size in the network is longer than the bandwidth will allow.
Answer: A, E

30. Consider the exhibit. On which two of the links (labeled A through F) would SCCP be used as the protocol? (Choose 2)

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
F. F
Answer: B, F

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2009-09-23T23:37:00.000-07:00

650-175 SMBAM - SMB Specialization for Account Managers

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Free 650-175 Sample Questions:

1. Which three statements best describe the features of the ProtectLink Gateway product? (Choose three.)
A. provides encryption between a browser and a web server
B. provides web server content filtering is bundled in the SPS platform
C. provides content filtering for e-mail blocks 97% of SPAM
D. protects from spyware and phishing attacks
Answer: B, C, D

2. The Cisco Smart Foundation Service is entry-level technical support service that provides the support that small businesses need to help them maintain network reliability and minimize disruption to business. Which three features are discovered in a target customer for Cisco Smart Foundation services? (Choose three.)
A. 50 or fewer network devices
B. network is considered mission-critical
C. fewer than 250 network users
D. network is not mission-critical to business
Answer: A, C, D

3. The SMB Specialization is the first Cisco Partner Specialization that addresses high-level skills required to successfully design and deploy Cisco SMB (fewer than 250 employees) solutions. In which areas will SMBs require better products than found in retail stores?
A. wireless, intranet, and wide-area networking
B. voice, intranet, and security
C. security, voice, and wide-area networking
D. wireless, security, and voice
Answer: D

4. Which of the following items is most suitable for customers with up to 48 users on a network where voice communication is essential to business operation?
A. Cisco Smart Care Service
B. SMARTnet Partner Service
C. Cisco Smart Foundation Service
D. Cisco SMARTnet for SBCS
Answer: D

5. Cisco Catalyst Express 500 Series switches deliver best-in-class networking that is designed to meet the needs of growing businesses with up to 250 employees. Cisco Catalyst Express 500 Series Switch is applicable to which campus LAN area?
A. core area
B. distribution area
C. access area
Answer: C

6. At the mention of increased productivity, minimized legal risks, and improvements in "green" operation, Cisco solutions in which technology area will come into your head?
A. routing and switching
B. security
C. eCommerce
D. web collaboration
Answer: B

7. Cisco Configuration Assistant simplifies the task of configuring, deploying, and administering the Cisco Smart Business Communications system. Cisco Configuration Assistant performs which two functions? (Choose two.)
A. wireless connectivity
B. call forwarding
C. device discovery
D. call routing configuration
Answer: C, D

8. Cisco Smart Care Service provides comprehensive network care and improvement for small and medium-sized businesses. Which of the following options is correct about the features provided by Cisco Smart Care Service?
A. fee-based add-on support and tech-to-tech assistance for Cisco products
B. bundled, unlimited support with the purchase of any Cisco product
C. bundled technical support and maintenance for Cisco networks
D. technical support, maintenance, and monitoring to Cisco networks
Answer: D

9. Assume that you are a Cisco technician, what resource will you recommend to a new Cisco partner for different kinds of tools?
A. Steps to Success
B. Channel Incentive program
C. Partner Central
D. Unified Communications for SMB
Answer: C

10. Which two indicators should be taken into consideration by a customer when installing a Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose two.)
A. want to provide employee wireless access
B. need between two and three access points
C. need more than four access points
D. want to provide guest wireless access
Answer: C, D

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Exam code: 646-046
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1. Cisco Router and Security Device Manager (SDM) is a Web-based device-management tool for Cisco routers that can improve the productivity of network managers, simplify router deployments, and help troubleshoot complex network and VPN connectivity issues. Which of the following are benefits of Cisco SDM?
A. ease of use
B. troubleshooting
C. application intelligence
D. graphical monitoring and access
Answer: A, B, C, D

2. Which four ways can the Cisco Catalyst 6500 be used? (Choose four.)
A. for small businesses
B. for SOHU networks
C. for large service providers
D. to scale future IPv6 applications
E. for the distribution and core layers
F. as the switch aggregation point for the entire network
Answer: C, D, E, F

3. Which three blueprints would you suggest for voice and data with 500 to 1000 ports per site? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Catalyst 3750 and 7200 ISR Routers
B. Cisco Catalyst 3560 and 2801 ISR Routers
C. Cisco Catalyst 4500 and 7200 ISR Routers
D. Cisco Catalyst 6500 and 7200 ISR Routers
Answer: A, C, D

4. The Cisco Lifecycle Services approach defines the activities needed to help you successfully deploy and operate Cisco technologies and optimize their performance throughout the lifecycle of your network. Which of the following is a phase of Cisco Lifecycle Services?
A. site readiness assessment
B. customer education
C. design
D. business requirements development
Answer: C

5. So as to reduce network downtime, which of the following Cisco Catalyst 4500 Switch feature is applicable?
A. Modular components enable application redundancy
B. Cisco StackWise technology enables redundant switch configurations
C. Hot-swappable fans and power supplies
D. Integrated services routing with dual packet-switching module trays
Answer: C

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2009-09-09T05:19:00.000-07:00

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1. Cisco Unified Presence works with which two Cisco Unified Communications Manager versions? (Choose two.)
A. 3.x
B. 4.x
C. 5.x
D. 6.x
Answer: C, D

2. When migrating from Cisco Unified Communications Manager Release 5.x to Release 6.x, what is the fastest way to assign line appearances to users?
A. Manually edit each user account from a line-based user to a line-appearance-based user.
B. Use Cisco Unified Communications Manager BAT to migrate users from line-based users to line-appearance-based users.
C. Delete and reprovision users to have line-appearance mappings.
D. The upgrade automatically handles the migration from line-based user to line-appearance-based user.
Answer: B

3. A Cisco Unified Presence Solution integrated with Microsoft is being deployed. Which component is optional?
A. Microsoft Office Communicator
B. Microsoft Exchange 2003
C. 2007
D. Microsoft Office Communications Server
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager server
F. Cisco Unified Presence server
Answer: B

4. Which option is a peripheral component of Cisco Unified Presence?
A. sync agent
B. profile agent
C. SIP presence engine
D. SIP proxy
Answer: B

5. The phone status of a user is not updating automatically during use. What is the most likely problem?
A. The user is not associated with a line appearance.
B. The user is not logged in to Cisco Unified Personal Communicator.
C. SUBSCRIBE calling search space on the SIP trunk to Cisco Unified Presence is set incorrectly.
D. The Rerouting and Out-of-Dialog Refer settings are incorrectly set to Default.
Answer: C

6. A Cisco Unified Communications solution is being deployed as follows:
includes Cisco Unified Presence
integrates with Microsoft Office Communications Server
used for remote call control of Cisco Unified IP phones
What must be taken into consideration for scalability?
A. the hardware platform being used by Cisco Unified Presence
B. the hardware platform being used by Cisco Unified Communications
C. the type of Cisco Unified IP Phone being controlled
D. the version of Microsoft Office Communicator
Answer: B

7. Which Cisco Unified Personal Communicator file will be least helpful in troubleshooting?
A. UnifiedClientInstall.log
B. CiscoUnifiedPersonalCommunicatorHelpMenu.txt
C. SystemInfo.txt
D. UnifiedClientLog4CXX.txt
Answer: B

8. Which software components are unsupported in Cisco Unified Presence Release 6.0.1?
A. Cisco Unified Communication Manager Release 6.0 and Cisco Unified Personal Communicator Release 1.2
B. Cisco Unified Communication Manager Release 5.1 and Microsoft Active Directory
C. Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Express 2.0 and Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Express VT Release 1.2
D. Cisco Unity 5.0 (for Microsoft Exchange 2003 and 2007)
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager 4.x
Answer: E

9. Microsoft Office Communicator is being integrated with a Cisco Unified IP Phone for remote call control. What is the purpose of the Cisco Unified Presence server?
A. SIP/SIMPLE control of the Cisco Unified IP Phone
B. presence federation between Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Microsoft Office Communications Server
C. Cisco Unified Presence is not used in this integration
D. converting CSTA (ECMA TR-87) messaging used by Microsoft Office Communications Server to CTI messaging used by Cisco Unified Communications Manager, and vice versa
Answer: D

10. In which application are Cisco Unified Presence users licensed?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager administration
B. LDAP backend server administration
C. Cisco Unified Presence server administration
D. third-party administration
Answer: A

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2009-09-09T05:16:00.000-07:00

642-164 Unified Communications Contact Center Express (UCCX)

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A. create a trigger
B. create an application
C. restart the CRS engine
D. upload script to repository
E. configure default session timeout
Answer: A, B, D

4. CiscoWorks IP Telephony Environment Monitor (ITEM) provides what two serviceability capabilities? (Choose two.)
A. Tool to collect syslog messages from multiple sources
B. User Tracking to track IP telephones
C. Diagnostic trace tools to analyze connectivity
D. Monitoring of Cisco voice elements
E. Problem alerts for operations personnel
Answer: D, E

5. When would the Cisco Supervisor Desktop fail to show an agent that is logged in?
A. The agent is not ready.
B. The agent is not on a call.
C. The agent is an IP phone agent.
D. The agent is not in the team currently being viewed by the supervisor.
Answer: D

6. Where are CTI route points added or configured for Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?
A. Cisco Unified CallManager Device Configuration
B. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Directory Management
C. Cisco Supervisor Desktop
D. Cisco CRS Administration, JTAPI Trigger Creation
E. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Media Subsystem
Answer: D

7. What is a benefit of using subflows?
A. decreases the amount of flows
B. collects information about callers to agents
C. creates a framework for CRS Server status reporting
D. decreases latency through increased bandwidth on CRS Server
E. provides more efficient management of flows that are called by multiple other flows
Answer: E

8. What formula do you use to calculate the number of Voice Gateway ports?
A. Erlang A
B. Erlang B
C. Erlang C
D. IVR ports + agent phones
Answer: B

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2009-08-14T04:01:00.000-07:00

Cheat-test 640-721 Certification Exam

There are many online resources for preparing for the 640-721 exam - Implementing Cisco Unified Wireless Network Essentials. Read below to discover why Cheat-test.com is your premier source for practice tests, and true testing environment.

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Cisco 640-721 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 640-721 Sample Questions:

Q: 1 What is fading?
A. Another signal source is producing energy on the channel in which you are trying to operate.
B. The desired signal reaches the receiving antenna via multiple paths, each of which has a different propagation delay and path loss.
C. A time-varying change in the path loss of a link with the time variance governed by the movement of objects in the environment, including the transmitter and receiver themselves.
D. A function of the frequency and should be provided in the cable specification by the vendor.
E. The minimum signal level for the receiver to be able to acceptably decode the information.
F. The time delay from the reception of the first instance of the signal until the last instance.
Answer: C

Q: 2 Which limitation applies to the use of the Cisco WLAN Solution Management over Wireless feature?
A. Controllers must be managed using only secure protocols (that is, SSH and HTTPS), not nonsecure protocols (that is, HTTP and Telnet).
B. Read-write access is not available; only read-only access is supported.
C. Uploads and downloads from the controller are not allowed.
D. Wireless clients can manage other controllers however not the same controller and AP to which the client is associated.
Answer: C

Q: 3 Up to how many Cisco WiSMs are supported in a single mobility group operating under v5.0 code?
A. 5
B. 12
C. 16
D. 24
E. 150
F. 300
Answer: B

Q: 4 The existing Cisco Unified Wireless Controller is running v5.0 code for both the controllers and the Cisco WCS. A controller has been configured with an appropriate rogue rule condition to report discovered APs to the Cisco WCS. What default alarm level is used to display all rogue APs in the Alarm Summary?
A. Critical
B. Flash
C. Major
D. Minor
E. Urgent
Answer: D

Q: 5 Cisco Client Management Frame Protection is running on a mobility group with two controllers. Which two MFP requirements protect the network? (Choose two.)
A. forces clients to authenticate, using a secure EAP method only
B. implements the validation of wireless management frames
C. requires CCXv5
D. requires the use of a nonbroadcast SSID
E. requires CCXv4
Answer: B, C

Q: 6 What is the result when client exclusion is enabled with a timeout value of zero?
A. Clients are excluded indefinitely.
B. Clients are never excluded.
C. Client exclusion is disabled.
D. Clients must be explicitly included by specifying the MAC address.
E. Exclusion and inclusion is determined by access list.
Answer: A

Q: 7 The central office is currently using a combination of 4400 and 2100 series WLAN controllers running v4.2 and a variety of LWAPP-enabled access points servicing both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. The WLAN deployment has been extended to each remote office by implementing a 526 WLAN controller running v4.1 and several 521 access points. Wireless client deployment uses EAP-TLS authentication using a centralized RADIUS server plus 802.11n for performance. After the first remote office deployment, remote office users complain that they are not connecting via 802.11n.
What is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. The 526 WLAN controller does not support external authentication via RADIUS, prohibiting authentication.
B. The 521 AP does not support 5 GHz, which prohibits 802.11n.
C. The 521 AP and 526 WLAN controllers do not support AES, which prohibits 802.11n.
D. The 526 WLAN controller does not support 802.11n with v4.1 and must be upgraded to v4.2.
E. The 526 WLAN controller does not support 802.11n with either v4.1 or v4.2.
Answer: E

Q: 8 How do the features that are available on the Cisco WCS for Linux version differ from those of the Cisco WCS for Windows version?
A. Assuming that there are no differences in hardware, a Cisco WCS for Linux can support up to 750 wireless LAN controllers. A Cisco WCS for Windows can support up to 250 wireless LAN controllers.
B. Cisco WCS for Windows includes support for Cisco Spectrum Expert clients. Cisco WCS for Linux does not support Cisco Spectrum Expert clients.
C. Cisco WCS for Linux is required for deployments.
D. There are no differences in features between the Linux and Windows versions of Cisco WCS.
Answer: D

Q: 9 Which CLI command shows the controller configuration in a way that is similar to the way that it is displayed on Cisco IOS routers?
A. show config
B. show run config
C. show run-config
D. show running config
E. show running-config
Answer: E

Q: 10 Which two attacks does Management Frame Protection help to mitigate? (Choose two.)
A. Eavesdropping
B. Denial of Service
C. War Driving
D. Man-in-the-Middle
Answer: B, D

Q: 11 Lightweight access points send control traffic to which device(s)?
A. Other access points.
B. The Wireless Control System.
C. The Wireless Controller.
D. Lightweight access points don't send control traffic.
Answer: C

Q: 12 Which three elements define the 802.11n implementation of MIMO? (Choose three.)
A. Channel Bonding
B. Dynamic Frequency Selection
C. Maximal Ratio Combining
D. Packet Aggregation
E. Spatial Multiplexing
F. Transmit Beam Forming
Answer: C, E, F

Q: 13 In the AP Layer 3 controller discovery process, after the LWAPP Discovery Request is broadcast on a local subnet, what is the next step that the AP takes?
A. Determine whether the controller responses are the primary controller.
B. Send an LWAPP discovery request to controllers learned via OTAP if operational.
C. Send an LWAPP response to the master controller if known.
D. Wait 5 seconds and resend a Discovery Request to the local subnet.
Answer: B

Q: 14 Effective Isotropic Radiated Power is calculated by using which three values? (Choose three.)
A. antenna bandwidth
B. antenna gain
C. cable loss
D. receiver sensitivity
E. SSID
F. transmission power
Answer: B, C, F

Q: 15 Which four file formats are used when importing a single campus map into the Cisco WCS 5.0? (Choose four.)
A. .BMP
B. .GIF
C. .JPEG
D. .JPG
E. .PNG
F. .VSD
G. .MAP
H. .XML
Answer: B, C, D, E

Q: 16 When creating a wireless profile in the Cisco ADU and you have selected the WPA/WPA2/CCKM radio button option, what other decision must you make and then configure on this same screen?
A. the address and the server secret of the authentication device you will authenticate with
B. the encryption type
C. the EAP type to be used for authentication
D. the length and value of the pre-shared key
E. the SSID of the wireless client
Answer: C

Q: 17 Drag and Drop

Answer:

Q: 18 Which roaming situation using controllers in a Cisco Unified Wireless Network requires a client using WPA2 with PKC to reauthenticate to the network?
A. A wireless client roams to another AP on a different controller in the same mobility domain.
B. A wireless client roams to another AP on the same controller.
C. A wireless client roams to another AP after being out of range of the network for 2 minutes.
D. A wireless client roams to another AP on a controller in a different mobility domain.
Answer: D

Q: 19 What three authentication methods are generally used in enterprise wireless networks? (Choose three.)
A. AES
B. CCKM
C. EAP-FAST
D. EAP-TLS
E. PEAP
F. WEP
Answer: C, D, E

Q: 20 A client is attached to the Cisco Unified Wireless network using controllers.
When the client is using WPA2 and EAP authentication, where are the wireless encryption keys located during the active user session? (Choose two.)
A. on the access point
B. on the RADIUS server
C. on the Cisco WCS
D. on the client
E. on the Cisco WLC
Answer: A, D

Q: 21 Which statement about an infrastructure basic service set is true according to IEEE 802.11 specifications?
A. Also called an Ad Hoc Network.
B. The BSSID is generated from the first wireless client that starts up in the IBSS.
C. Enables the use of ESS.
D. No relaying of signals from one client to another client.
Answer: C

Q: 22 What increases bandwidth and resists multipath problems by carrying data in subcarriers?
A. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum
B. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum
C. Narrow Band Frequency
D. Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing
Answer: D

Q: 23 When creating new configuration profiles in Cisco Secure Services Client, in what format are the files saved?
A. .RTF
B. .HTML
C. .TXT
D. .XML
E. .XTML
Answer: D

Q: 24 A controller is connected to a Cisco IOS Catalyst switch. The following is the switch port configuration:
interface GigabitEthernet 1/0/10
switchport
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,20,30,50
switchport trunk native vlan 20
switchport mode trunk
Which controller CLI command assigns its management interface to the Cisco IOS Catalyst switch native vlan interface?
A. config interface vlan management 0
B. config interface vlan management 1
C. config interface vlan management 20
D. config interface vlan management 30
E. config interface vlan management 50
Answer: A

Q: 25 What two statements about beacon frames used by access points are true? (Choose two.)
A. contains SSIDs if this feature is enabled
B. provides vendor proprietary information
C. is another name for an associated request
D. sent in response to a probe frame
E. includes ATIM window information for power save operations
Answer: A, B

Q: 26 Why does Cisco recommend using Tftpd32 version 3.0 or later when upgrading wireless LAN controller software to release 4.1 or later?
A. Tftpd32 is a component of CiscoWorks LMS
B. Tftpd32 supports TFTP file transfers larger than 32 MB
C. Tftpd32 is Cisco Compatible Extensions version 4 compliant
D. Tftpd32 supports EoIP tunneling which is required for remote Cisco WLC upgrades
Answer: B

Q: 27 Which set of commands assigns a standalone access point an IP address of 10.0.0.24 with a 27-bit subnet mask and a gateway of 10.0.0.1?
A. config t
interface BVI1
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.192
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
B. config t
interface BVI1
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.224
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
C. config t
interface FastEthernet1
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.224
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
D. config t
interface Dot11Radio0
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.224
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
E. config t
interface FastEthernet1
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.192
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
F. config t
interface Dot11Radio0
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.192
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
Answer: B

Q: 28 If you have the Cisco ADU installed but want to use the Windows Zero Config utility to configure a wireless network profile, what must you do first?
A. Define a common profile in both the Cisco ADU and WZC.
B. Define the wireless profile in the Wireless Networks tab in WZC.
C. In the WZC utility, make sure that the box labeled "Use Windows to configure my Wireless Network Settings" is checked.
D. Uninstall the Cisco ADU.
Answer: C

Q: 29 How are application-specific devices differentiated from laptop computers in the way they support Cisco Compatible Extensions?
A. ASDs are required to support only CCXv1 and v2 features. Laptops must support all CCX features.
B. ASDs are required to support only CCXv5 management features, while laptops are optional features.
C. Several features that are required for laptops are not required for ASDs.
D. There is no differentiation. ASDs and laptops must both support the same CCX features.
Answer: C

Q: 30 When choosing an EAP type for your Cisco ADU security profile, what must you ensure to authenticate successfully?
A. that the client and authentication server support the same encryption protocol
B. that the EAP type selected is known not to exchange any of its credentials in the clear
C. that the EAP type that you selected is supported by the authentication server
D. that the time set on the clocks for the wireless client and the authenticator are close to the same time
E. that WEP is not selected
Answer: C

Click Here for Next 30 Free Cisco CCNA 640-721 Exam Questions

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2009-08-14T03:55:00.000-07:00

Cisco 640-553 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 640-553 Sample Questions:

1. As a network engineer at XXYYinc.com, you are responsible for XXYYinc network. Which will be necessarily taken into consideration when implementing Syslogging in your network?
A. Log all messages to the system buffer so that they can be displayed when accessing the router.
B. Use SSH to access your Syslog information.
C. Enable the highest level of Syslogging available to ensure you log all possible event messages.
D. Syncronize clocks on the network with a protocol such as Network Time Protocol.
Answer: D

2. Which classes does the U.S. government place classified data into? (Choose three.)
A. SBU
B. Confidential
C. Secret
D. Topsecret
Answer: B, C, D

3. You are a network technician at XXYYinc.com. Which description is correct when you have generated RSA keys on your Cisco router to prepare for secure device management?
A. All vty ports are automatically enabled for SSH to provide secure management.
B. The SSH protocol is automatically enabled.
C. You must then zeroize the keys to reset secure shell before configuring other parameters.
D. You must then specify the generalpurpose key size used for authentication with the crypto key generate rsa generalkeys modulus command.
Answer: B

4. Which method is of gaining access to a system that bypasses normal security measures?
A. Creating a back door
B. Starting a Smurf attack
C. Conducting social engineering
D. Launching a DoS attack
Answer: A

5. As a candidate for CCNA examination, when you are familiar with the basic commands, if you input the command "enable secret level 5 password" in the global mode , what does it indicate?
A. Set the enable secret command to privilege level 5.
B. The enable secret password is hashed using SHA.
C. The enable secret password is hashed using MD5.
D. The enable secret password is encrypted using Cisco proprietary level 5 encryption. E.The enable secret password is for accessing exec privilege level 5.
Answer: E

6. Which statement is true about a Smurf attack?
A. It sends ping requests to a subnet, requesting that devices on that subnet send ping replies to a target system.
B. It intercepts the third step in a TCP threeway handshake to hijack a session.
C. It uses Trojan horse applications to create a distributed collection of "zombie" computers, which can be used to launch a coordinated DDoS attack.
D. It sends ping requests in segments of an invalid size.
Answer: A

7. Please choose the correct description about Cisco SelfDefending Network characteristics.

A. INTEGRATED XY1 COLLABORATIVE XY2 ADAPTIVE XY3
B. INTEGRATED XY2 COLLABORATIVE XY1 ADAPTIVE XY3
C. INTEGRATED XY2 COLLABORATIVE XY3 ADAPTIVE XY1
D. INTEGRATED XY3 COLLABORATIVE XY2 ADAPTIVE XY1
Answer: B

8. Which three items are Cisco bestpractice recommendations for securing a network? (Choose three.)
A. Deploy HIPS software on all enduser workstations.
B. Routinely apply patches to operating systems and applications.
C. Disable unneeded services and ports on hosts.
D. Require strong passwords, and enable password expiration.
Answer: B, C, D

9. With the increasing development of network, various network attacks appear. Which statement best describes the relationships between the attack method and the result?

A. Ping Sweep XY1 and XY3 Port Scan XY2, XY4 and XY5
B. Ping Sweep XY2 and XY4 Port Scan XY1, XY3 and XY5
C. Ping Sweep XY1 and XY5 Port Scan XY2, XY3 and XY4
D. Ping Sweep XY2 and XY3 Port Scan XY1, XY4 and XY5
Answer: B

10. For the following attempts, which one is to ensure that no one employee becomes a pervasive security threat, that data can be recovered from backups, and that information system changes do not compromise a system's security?
A. Disaster recovery
B. Strategic security planning
C. Implementation security
D. Operations security
Answer: D

11. For the following options ,which one accurately matches the CLI command(s) to the equivalent SDM wizard that performs similar configuration functions?
A. setup exec command and the SDM Security Audit wizard
B. auto secure exec command and the SDM OneStep Lockdown wizard
C. aaa configuration commands and the SDM Basic Firewall wizard
D. Cisco Common Classification Policy Language configuration commands and the SDM SitetoSite VPN wizard
Answer: B

12. Which three options are network evaluation techniques? (Choose three.)
A. Scanning a network for active IP addresses and open ports on those IP addresses
B. Using passwordcracking utilities
C. Performing enduser training on the use of antispyware software
D. Performing virus scans
Answer: A, B, D

13. Which is the main difference between hostbased and networkbased intrusion prevention?
A. Networkbased IPS is better suited for inspection of SSL and TLS encrypted data flows.
B. Hostbased IPS can work in promiscuous mode or inline mode.
C. Networkbased IPS can provide protection to desktops and servers without the need of installing specialized software on the end hosts and servers.
D. Hostbased IPS deployment requires less planning than networkbased IPS.
Answer: C

14. Which one is the most important based on the following common elements of a network design?
A. Business needs
B. Best practices
C. Risk analysis
D. Security policy
Answer: A

15. Given the exhibit below. You are a network manager of your company. You are reading your Syslog server reports. On the basis of the Syslog message shown, which two descriptions are correct? (Choose two.)

A. This message is a level 5 notification message.
B. This message is unimportant and can be ignored.
C. This is a normal systemgenerated information message and does not require further investigation.
D. Service timestamps have been globally enabled.
Answer: A, D

16. Examine the following items, which one offers a variety of security solutions, including firewall, IPS, VPN, antispyware, antivirus, and antiphishing features?
A. Cisco 4200 series IPS appliance
B. Cisco ASA 5500 series security appliance
C. Cisco IOS router
D. Cisco PIX 500 series security appliance
Answer: B

17. The enable secret password appears as an MD5 hash in a router's configuration file, whereas the enable password is not hashed (or encrypted, if the passwordencryption service is not enabled). What is the reason that Cisco still support the use of both enable secret and enable passwords in a router's configuration?
A. The enable password is used for IKE Phase I, whereas the enable secret password is used for IKE Phase II.
B. The enable password is considered to be a router's public key, whereas the enable secret password is considered to be a router's private key.
C. Because the enable secret password is a hash, it cannot be decrypted. Therefore, the enable password is used to match the password that was entered, and the enable secret is used to verify that the enable password has not been modified since the hash was generated.
D. The enable password is present for backward compatibility.
Answer: D

18 .How does CLI view differ from a privilege level?
A. A CLI view supports only commands configured for that specific view, whereas a privilege level supports commands available to that level and all the lower levels.
B. A CLI view supports only monitoring commands, whereas a privilege level allows a user to make changes to an IOS configuration.
C. A CLI view and a privilege level perform the same function. However, a CLI view is used on a Catalyst switch, whereas a privilege level is used on an IOS router.
D. A CLI view can function without a AAA configuration, whereas a privilege level requires AAA to be configured.
Answer: A

19. When configuring Cisco IOS login enhancements for virtual connections, what is the "quiet period"?
A. A period of time when no one is attempting to log in
B. The period of time in which virtual logins are blocked as security services fully initialize
C. The period of time in which virtual login attempts are blocked, following repeated failed login attempts
D. The period of time between successive login attempts
Answer: C

20. Which result is of securing the Cisco IOS image by use of the Cisco IOS image resilience feature?
A. When the router boots up, the Cisco IOS image will be loaded from a secured FTP location.
B. The Cisco IOS image file will not be visible in the output from the show flash command.
C. The show version command will not show the Cisco IOS image file location.
D. The running Cisco IOS image will be encrypted and then automatically backed up to a TFTP server.
Answer: B

21. Which three statements are valid SDM configuration wizards? (Choose three.)
A. Security Audit
B. VPN
C. STP
D. NAT
Answer: A, B, D

22. How do you define the authentication method that will be used with AAA?
A. With a method list
B. With the method command
C. With the method aaa command
D. With a method statement
Answer: A

23. Which one of the following commands can be used to enable AAA authentication to determine if a user can access the privilege command level?
A. aaa authentication enable default local
B. aaa authentication enable level
C. aaa authentication enable method default
D. aaa authentication enable default
Answer: D

24. What is the objective of the aaa authentication login consolein local command?
A. It specifies the login authorization method list named consolein using the local RADIUS usernamepassword database.
B. It specifies the login authorization method list named consolein using the local usernamepassword database on the router.
C. It specifies the login authentication method list named consolein using the local user database on the router.
D. It specifies the login authentication list named consolein using the local username password database on the router.
Answer: C

25. Which description is true about the show login command output displayed in the exhibit?

A. All logins from any sources are blocked for another 193 seconds.
B. The login blockfor command is configured to block login hosts for 93 seconds.
C. When the router goes into quiet mode, any host is permitted to access the router via Telnet, SSH, and HTTP, since the quietmode access list has not been configured.
D. Three or more login requests have failed within the last 100 seconds.
Answer: D

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2009-08-14T03:40:00.000-07:00

Exam Code: 640-460
Exam Name: IIUC Implementing Cisco IOS Unified Communications (IIUC)
Last Update: August 2009
Price: USD 79.00
Guarantee: No Pass No Pay, 100% Pass Guarantee!!!

Cisco 640-460 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 640-460 Sample Questions:

Q: 1 You are CCNA VOICE associate in xxyyinc.com. You need configure a voice port that will allow the gateway to terminate 23 or 30 circuits from the PSTN. Which type of voice port you will configure?
A. BRI
B. FXS
C. PRI T1/E1
D. E&M
Answer: C

Q: 2 Which of the following is selected first for an incoming dial peer?
A. Answer-address
B. incoming called-number
C. destination-pattern
D. pots port
Answer: B

Q: 3 Power over Ethernet (PoE) is the ability for the LAN switching infrastructure to provide power over a copper Ethernet cable to an endpoint (Powered Device). This capability, once referred to as "inline power", was originally developed and first delivered by Cisco in 2000 to support the emerging IP Telephony deployments. IP Telephones, like desktop PBX phones, need power for their operation and Power over Ethernet enables scalable and manageable power delivery and simplifies deployments of IP Telephony. As Wireless networking emerged, Power over Ethernet was also used to power these devices to allow for deployments in locations where local power access did not exist. While IP telephones and wireless access points are the most intuitive uses for PoE, the advent of 802.3af standardization of PoE opens the door to a new generation of networked-attached devices such as video cameras, point-of-sale devices, security access control (card scanners), building automation and industrial automation just to name a few. When a Cisco switch supply PoE to an IP phone?
A. whenever switch and IP phone are Cisco products.
B. when Cisco switch supports prestandard PoE and the IP phone supports 802.3af.
C. when Cisco switch and IP phone both support a common PoE method.
D. Only when both the switch and IP phone use 802.3af PoE.
Answer: C

Q: 4 What is the default VTP mode on Cisco switches?
A. Master
B. Client
C. Backup
D. Server
Answer: D

Q: 5 Which codec is less processor intensive?
A. G729
B. G729a
Answer: B

Q: 6 Which Cisco Unified Communications layer is the call processing layer?
A. Layer A including video,communications client, software-based phones, IP Phone
B. Layer B including Voice mail,Presence,Contact Center
C. Layer C including Cisco Unified Communications manger,Directory Server.
D. Layer D including Gateway, Router, Switch.
Answer: C

Q: 7 What are the three VTP modes on Cisco switches?
A. Master
B. Client
C. Server
D. Transparent
Answer: B, C, D

Q: 8 A SIP Trunk is a logical connection between an IP PBX and a Service Provider's application servers that allows voice over IP traffic to be exchanged between the two. When a call is placed from an internal phone to an external number, the PBX sends the necessary information to the SIP Trunk provider who establishes the call to the dialed number and acts as an intermediary for the call. All signaling and voice traffic between the PBX and the provider is exchanged using SIP and RTP protocol packets over the IP network. Which two statements about SIP trunk are true?
A. A SIP trunk configuration is mandatory for a UC500 device.
B. A SIP trunk is needed for internet access
C. A SIP trunk is needed only for voice if you are planning on using VoIP through a service provider.
D. A SIP trunk is not supported in a keyswitch configuration.
Answer: C, D

Q: 9 You are CCNA VOICE associate in xxyyinc.com. One user from your company wants to use a signaling protocol on the voice gateways that require registration with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which protocol should you suggest to him?
A. SIP
B. Frame relay
C. SRTP
D. MGCP
Answer: D

Q: 10 An analog telephone is connected to a _______ port on a router?
A. FXO
B. E1
C. T1
D. FXS
Answer: D

Q: 11 Choose the Gateway to the proper locations.

A. 2,3
B. 2,5
C. 3,5
D. 1,3
Answer: C

Q: 12 Exhibit

Answer: Select "Voice Features" and "Dial Plan"

Q: 13 What is required to convert a G711ulaw call to G729?
A. Voice Termination resources
B. Conferencing resources
C. Converter resources
D. Transcoding resources
Answer: D

Q: 14 Whhich statement is true abou the difference between voice VLAN and native VLAN?
A. Voice VLAN uses untagged frames whereas native VLAN uses 802.1Q frames
B. Voice VLAN uses tagged 802.1Q frames whereas native VLAN uses 802.1P frames
C. Voice VLAN uses tagged 802.1Q frames whereas native VLAN uses untagged frames
D. Voice VLAN uses untagged frames only when no PCs are connected behind the phones whereas native VLAN always uses untagged frames
Answer: C

Q: 15 Cisco ____protocol is used to inform the IP phone of its voice VLAN ID.
A. Discovery
Answer: A

Q: 16 What is the maximum number of phones are supported on Call Manager Express?
A. 48
B. 28
C. 240
D. 500
Answer: C

Q: 17 You are CCNA VOICE associate in xxyyinc.com. Which value should you assign to option 150 for DHCP to operate correctly in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express environment?
A. FTP server of the DNS server
B. MAC address of the DHCP server
C. MAC address of the TFTP server
D. IP address of the TFTP server
Answer: D

Q: 18 You are CCNA VOICE associate in xxyyinc.com. Which identifies the amplitude of an analog signal stream?

A. A x C
B. A x B
C. A
D. C
Answer: D

Q: 19 What protocol needs to be enabled on an ATA if a fax machine is connected to the ATA?
A. MGCP
B. SCCP
C. H323
D. SIP
Answer: C

Q: 20 You are CCNA VOICE associate in xxyyinc.com. Which two are considered endpoints in a Cisco Unified Communications solution?
A. router
B. call agent
C. IP telephone
D. gateway
Answer: C, D

Q: 21 You are CCNA VOICE associate in xxyyinc.com. You execute the show ephone command in the Cisco Unified Communications manger as below. What information will you get from the output?

A. There is only one IP phone.
B. There are two registered IP phones. Shared number 5010 on line 2. Message waiting on shared line.
C. There are two IP phones. Phone 2 is unregistered. Shared number 5010 on line 2. Message waiting on shared line
D. There are two IP phones. Phone 2 is unregistered. Shared number 5010 on line 2. Message waiting on line 1 of phone 1.
Answer: D

Q: 22 What protocol needs to be enabled on an ATA if an analog telephone is connected to the ATA?
A. MGCP
B. SCCP
C. H323
D. SIP
Answer: B

Q: 23 Please match the CAS component to the office that it will apply.
(1)CAS E1
(2)CAS T1
(3)1.544 mb/s
(4)2.048 mb/s
(5)RBS in-band
(6)24 voice channels
(7)30 voice channels
(8)out-of-band signaling in time slot 17
(I)London, United Kingdom
(II)Chicago, United States
A. (I)-(1 4 5 8);(II)-(2 3 7 6)
B. (I)-(2 4 7 8);(II)-(1 3 5 6)
C. (I)-(1 4 7 8);(II)-(2 3 5 6)
D. (I)-(1 3 7 8);(II)-(2 4 5 6)
Answer: C

Q: 24 Jitter is an unwanted variation of one or more characteristics of a periodic signal in electronics and telecommunications. Jitter may be seen in characteristics such as the interval between successive pulses, or the amplitude, frequency, or phase of successive cycles. Jitter is a significant factor in the design of almost all communications links (e.g. USB, PCI-e, SATA, OC-48). In clock recovery applications it is called timing jitter. Which type of delay can lead to jitter in a voice network?
A. transmission delay
B. serialization delay
C. CODEC delay
D. queuing delay
Answer: D

Q: 25 What device enables Call Admission Control in a CME environment?
A. Gateway
B. Transcoder
C. Bridge
D. Gatekeeper
Answer: D

Q: 26 I You are CCNA VOICE associate in xxyyinc.com. You use IP phone A to place a call to IP phone B. How many RTP streams are required for the call to be successfully completed?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: A

Q: 27 Please match the protocol to the characteristic.
(1)SIP
(2)SCCP
(3)H.323
(4)MGCP
(I)Peer-to-Peer
(II)Client/Server
A. (I)-(1 2);(II)-(3 4)
B. (I)-(2 4);(II)-(1 3)
C. (I)-(1 4);(II)-(2 3)
D. (I)-(1 3);(II)-(2 4)
Answer: D

Q: 28 Which protocol provides VoiP packet sequence numbering?
A. IP
B. TCP
C. UDP
D. RTP
Answer: D

Q: 29 Time-Division Multiplexing (TDM) is a type of digital or (rarely) analog multiplexing in which two or more signals or bit streams are transferred apparently simultaneously as sub-channels in one communication channel, but are physically taking turns on the channel. Which is the best description of time-division multiplexing?
A. One TDM frame consists of multiple timeslot per sub-channel.
B. the time domain is only one recurrent timeslots of fixed length
C. Individual source signals are combined into a composite signal, which allows a capacity equal to or greater than the sum of the component signals.
D. All sources get an interleaved slice of time, which offers the entire frequency range allocated for that timeslot
Answer: D

Q: 30 Which statement about the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express configuration is correct based on the following information?

A. Nothing needs to be added. MoH will work fine
B. MoH will not work because the multicast address is incorrect
C. MoH will not work because you need to add the route 10.3.130.1 command in multicast moh 239.1.1.1 port 2000.
D. The configuration will work only for calls that are being transferred because the transfer-system command has been added.
Answer: A

Click here for more Cisco CCNA 640-460 exam questions.

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CCNA Certification, CCNA Exams, CCNA Practice Tests, CCNA Braindumps Cisco

2009-08-05T11:48:00.000-07:00

CertifySky > Cisco Certification > CCNA

CertifySky Cisco® CCNA	Price (USD)	Add to Cart
(640-460) IIUC Implementing Cisco IOS Unified Communications (IIUC)	79.95
(640-553) IINS Implementing Cisco IOS Network Security	79.95
(640-721) Implementing Cisco Unified Wireless Networking Essentials (IUWNE)	79.95
(640-801) CCNA: (Cisco Certified Network Associate)	79.95
(640-802) Cisco Certified Network Associate	79.95
(640-811) Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices (ICND)	79.95
(640-816) Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2	79.95
(640-821) Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies	79.95
(640-822) Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1	79.95

Cisco CCNA Certification

In the world of IT, competition has become fierce and keeping your edge may require certification. Discover the secrets behind being successful on your Cisco Certified Network Associate certification exam.

In pursuing a Cisco certification, the first mile marker one will encounter along the path is the Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) certification. This certification is designed to validate a solid foundation of networking skills, including a basic knowledge of the OSI reference model, networking protocols, Layer 2 switching concepts and protocols, routing concepts and protocols, and wide-area networking (WAN) connectivity. A person who achieves CCNA certification should have the skills necessary to provide basic network installations and level 1 troubleshooting skills.

The knowledge required to pass the CCNA certification exam is among the most valuable skills required in the networking field. The topics covered by the CCNA certification exam are the building blocks of all networking topologies and protocols. Without the proper grounding in these skills, a networking professional will find it difficult to understand many of the more complex technologies in the networking field. The most important aspects of the certification are the ways that devices communicate between each other in a networking environment using the different devices, such as Layer 2 switches and routers, to provide interconnectivity.

Cisco has revised the CCNA certification to validate the ability to install, operate and troubleshoot more complex, medium-sized routed and switched networks, including the ability to configure IP addressing and authentication, as well as establish and troubleshoot connections to service providers over a WAN. The new curriculum also covers mitigation of basic security threats and an introduction to wireless network concepts. CCNA certifies a comprehensive understanding of networking fundamentals and the skills required for positions such as a Network Specialist or Associate Network Engineer. At CertifySky, we have updated all the CCNA study content to reflect the changes made by Cisco, so you can be sure that our exam preparation materials are up to date and relevant.

Cisco Certification Contracts, Contractor Rates for Cisco Certification Qualifications

2009-08-05T11:45:00.000-07:00

The table looks at the demand for Cisco Certification IT contracts advertised across the UK. Included is a guide to the average contractor rates offered in IT contracts that have cited Cisco Certification over the 3 months to 5 August 2009 with a comparison to the same period last year. The second part of the table is for comparison and provides aggregates for all Qualifications currently tracked.

Cisco Certification

Location

3 months to
5 Aug 2009

Same period last year

Rank

125

Rank change on the same period last year

-32

Matching contract IT job ads

450

1311

As % of all contract IT jobs located in the UK

1.249 %

1.753 %

As % of the Qualifications category

7.389 %

11.18 %

Daily rates quoted

144

422

Average daily rate

£300

£333

Average daily rate % change on the same period last year

-9.770 %

90% of contracts offered a daily rate of more than

£175

£200

10% of contracts offered a daily rate of more than

£457

£475

UK excluding London average daily rate

£256

£300

% change on same period last year

-14.58 %

Hourly rates quoted

118

Average hourly rate

£26.50

£27.00

Average hourly rate % change on the same period last year

-1.850 %

90% of contracts offered a hourly rate of more than

£17.00

£17.40

10% of contracts offered a hourly rate of more than

£36.00

£42.50

UK excluding London average hourly rate

£26.25

£24.00

% change on same period last year

+9.370 %

All Qualifications
UK

Contract IT job ads with a match in the
Qualifications category

6090

11731

As % of all contract IT jobs located in the UK

16.90 %

15.69 %

Daily rates quoted

2362

3727

Average daily rate

£335

£368

Average daily rate % change on the same period last year

-8.840 %

90% of contracts offered a daily rate of more than

£200

£218

10% of contracts offered a daily rate of more than

£500

£525

UK excluding London average daily rate

£320

£350

% change on same period last year

-8.570 %

Hourly rates quoted

608

1282

Average hourly rate

£24.00

£27.00

Average hourly rate % change on the same period last year

-11.11 %

90% of contracts offered a hourly rate of more than

£13.00

10% of contracts offered a hourly rate of more than

£38.00

£42.25

UK excluding London average hourly rate

£25.00

£28.00

% change on same period last year

-10.71 %

Daily contractor rates and hourly contractor rates are treated separately. When calculating average contractor rates, daily rates are not derived from quoted hourly rates or vice versa.

Cisco Certification
Demand Trend

The chart provides the 3-month moving total beginning in 2004 of IT contractor jobs citing Cisco Certification within the UK as a proportion of the total demand within the Qualifications category.

Cisco Certification
Daily Rate Trend

The chart provides the 3-month moving average for daily rates quoted in IT contract jobs citing Cisco Certification within the UK.

Cisco Certification
Daily Rate Histogram

The chart provides a histogram of daily rates quoted in contract IT jobs citing Cisco Certification within the UK over the 3 months to 5 August 2009.

Cisco Certification
Hourly Rate Trend

The chart provides the 3-month moving average for hourly rates quoted in IT contractor jobs citing Cisco Certification within the UK.

Cisco Certification
Hourly Rate Histogram

The chart provides a histogram of hourly rates quoted in contract IT jobs citing Cisco Certification within the UK over the 3 months to 5 August 2009.

Cisco Certification
Top 30 Contract Locations

The table below looks at the demand and provides a guide to the average contractor rates quoted in IT jobs citing Cisco Certification within the UK over the 3 months to 5 August 2009. The 'Rank Change' column provides an indication of the change in demand within each location based on the same 3 month period last year.

Location	Rank Change on Same Period Last Year	Matching Contract IT Job Ads	Average Daily Rate Last 3 Months	Average Daily Rate % Change on Same Period Last Year
England	-30	418	£300	-11.11 %
London	-64	151	£330	-12.00 %
South East	-2	127	£300	-15.49 %
City of London	-4	49	£323	-19.37 %
Hampshire	+18	43	£344	-14.06 %
East of England	+37	35	£231	-27.27 %
Buckinghamshire	+25	33	£278	-26.84 %
Milton Keynes	+18	28	£289	-23.94 %
Portsmouth	+12	23	£300	-26.38 %
Scotland	+19	22	£225	-27.41 %
North West	+5	19	£364	+38.66 %
Yorkshire	+13	17	£175	-7.89 %
South West	-12	17	£220	-31.78 %
North East	+21	15	£183	-27.00 %
East Midlands	+19	15	£208	-19.41 %
West Midlands	+17	14	£210	-26.95 %
Tyne and Wear	+21	13	£183	-33.63 %
Surrey	+40	12	£315	+57.50 %
Berkshire	-19	12	£270	-31.42 %
Newcastle Upon Tyne	+12	11	£183	-27.00 %
Essex	+6	11	£169	-48.51 %
Cheshire	+19	10	£384	+91.87 %
East Sussex	+15	10	-	-
Brighton	+9	8	-	-
Cambridgeshire	+21	7	£250	-31.50 %
Norfolk	+20	7	-	-
Middlesex	+13	7	£330	-5.71 %
West Yorkshire	+11	7	£165	-13.15 %
Glasgow	+5	7	£168	-48.30 %
Peterborough	-	7	£250	-

Cisco Certification
Top 30 Related IT Skills

For the 6 months to 5 August 2009, IT contractor jobs within the UK citing Cisco Certification also mentioned the following IT skills in order of popularity. The figures indicate the number of jobs and their proportion against the total number of contract IT job ads sampled that cited Cisco Certification.

1	801 (78.84 %)	Cisco
2	520 (51.18 %)	CCNP
3	505 (49.70 %)	CCNA
4	373 (36.71 %)	Firewall
5	359 (35.33 %)	LAN
6	328 (32.28 %)	WAN
7	229 (22.54 %)	CCIE
8	176 (17.32 %)	VPN
9	172 (16.93 %)	CheckPoint
10	171 (16.83 %)	Security Cleared
11	153 (15.06 %)	Windows
12	152 (14.96 %)	Network Design
13	150 (14.76 %)	BGP
14	142 (13.98 %)	Finance
15	137 (13.48 %)	VoIP

16	133 (13.09 %)	MPLS
17	130 (12.80 %)	OSPF
18	129 (12.70 %)	Microsoft Certification
19	125 (12.30 %)	Juniper
20	123 (12.11 %)	Telecoms
21	121 (11.91 %)	MCSE
22	119 (11.71 %)	SC Cleared
23	103 (10.14 %)	Cisco PIX
24	101 (9.941 %)	Microsoft
25	100 (9.843 %)	TCP/IP
26	98 (9.646 %)	Banking
27	93 (9.154 %)	Active Directory
28	92 (9.055 %)	Cisco ASA
29	88 (8.661 %)	HP
30	86 (8.465 %)	ITIL

Cisco Certification
Top Related IT Skills by Category

For the 6 months to 5 August 2009, IT contractor jobs within the UK citing Cisco Certification also mentioned the following IT skills grouped by category. The figures indicate the number of jobs and their proportion against the total number of contract IT job ads sampled that cited Cisco Certification. Up to 20 skills are shown per category.

Application Development
1	11 (1.083 %)	HTML
2	5 (0.492 %)	CSS
2	5 (0.492 %)	WSH
2	5 (0.492 %)	WMI
3	4 (0.394 %)	SOAP
4	3 (0.295 %)	Middleware
4	3 (0.295 %)	.NET
5	2 (0.197 %)	Spring
5	2 (0.197 %)	MAPI
5	2 (0.197 %)	FIX Protocol
6	1 (0.098 %)	Software Packaging
6	1 (0.098 %)	Ruby on Rails
6	1 (0.098 %)	J2EE
6	1 (0.098 %)	Servlets

Application Platforms
1	66 (6.496 %)	MS Exchange
2	36 (3.543 %)	Exchange Server 2003
3	23 (2.264 %)	Exchange Server 2007
4	11 (1.083 %)	SharePoint
5	10 (0.984 %)	IIS
6	7 (0.689 %)	Exchange Server 2000
7	5 (0.492 %)	Apache
7	5 (0.492 %)	Tomcat
8	2 (0.197 %)	GroupWise
8	2 (0.197 %)	Resin
8	2 (0.197 %)	WebLogic
8	2 (0.197 %)	SharePoint Server 2007
9	1 (0.098 %)	Blackberry Enterprise Server
9	1 (0.098 %)	Exchange Server 5.5
9	1 (0.098 %)	Lotus Notes

Applications
1	30 (2.953 %)	MS Visio
2	25 (2.461 %)	MS Office
2	25 (2.461 %)	MS Excel
3	8 (0.787 %)	MS Project
4	2 (0.197 %)	MS PowerPoint

Business Applications
1	1 (0.098 %)	Summit

Communications & Networking
1	373 (36.71 %)	Firewall
2	359 (35.33 %)	LAN
3	328 (32.28 %)	WAN
4	176 (17.32 %)	VPN
5	150 (14.76 %)	BGP
6	137 (13.48 %)	VoIP
7	133 (13.09 %)	MPLS
8	130 (12.80 %)	OSPF
9	103 (10.14 %)	Cisco PIX
10	100 (9.843 %)	TCP/IP
11	92 (9.055 %)	Cisco ASA
12	77 (7.579 %)	Network Security
13	63 (6.201 %)	VLAN
14	52 (5.118 %)	IP Telephony
15	51 (5.020 %)	DNS
15	51 (5.020 %)	Internet
15	51 (5.020 %)	Wireless
16	45 (4.429 %)	SAN
16	45 (4.429 %)	Cisco IPT
17	43 (4.232 %)	Ethernet

Database & Business Intelligence
1	15 (1.476 %)	SQL Server
2	9 (0.886 %)	SQL Server 2000
3	5 (0.492 %)	MySQL
4	4 (0.394 %)	SQL Server 2005

Development Applications
1	1 (0.098 %)	StarTeam

General
1	142 (13.98 %)	Finance
2	123 (12.11 %)	Telecoms
3	98 (9.646 %)	Banking
4	76 (7.480 %)	Government
5	41 (4.035 %)	Investment Banking
6	18 (1.772 %)	Health
7	12 (1.181 %)	Education
8	8 (0.787 %)	Financial Institution
9	6 (0.591 %)	Legal
9	6 (0.591 %)	Local Government
9	6 (0.591 %)	Auditing
10	4 (0.394 %)	Retail
11	3 (0.295 %)	Automotive
11	3 (0.295 %)	Insurance
12	1 (0.098 %)	Marketing
12	1 (0.098 %)	Front Office
12	1 (0.098 %)	Back Office
12	1 (0.098 %)	Billing
12	1 (0.098 %)	Electric
12	1 (0.098 %)	Publishing

Job Titles
1	392 (38.58 %)	Network Engineer
2	141 (13.88 %)	Cisco Engineer
3	93 (9.154 %)	Network Support
4	90 (8.858 %)	Analyst
5	87 (8.563 %)	Support Engineer
6	82 (8.071 %)	Design Engineer
7	67 (6.594 %)	Cisco Network Engineer
8	66 (6.496 %)	Network Analyst
9	59 (5.807 %)	Consultant
10	57 (5.610 %)	Network Design Engineer
11	53 (5.217 %)	Network Specialist
12	50 (4.921 %)	Senior Network Engineer
13	41 (4.035 %)	Network Support Engineer
14	40 (3.937 %)	3rd Line Support
15	35 (3.445 %)	Voice Engineer
16	34 (3.346 %)	Cisco Support
17	32 (3.150 %)	Support Analyst
18	29 (2.854 %)	Project Manager
19	27 (2.657 %)	Architect
19	27 (2.657 %)	Network Consultant

Miscellaneous
1	22 (2.165 %)	NHS
2	14 (1.378 %)	Video Conferencing
3	10 (0.984 %)	Derivative
3	10 (0.984 %)	Fixed Income
4	8 (0.787 %)	German Language
5	7 (0.689 %)	French Language
6	6 (0.591 %)	e-Health
6	6 (0.591 %)	Clustering
6	6 (0.591 %)	Blackberry
7	4 (0.394 %)	IVR
7	4 (0.394 %)	CCTV
7	4 (0.394 %)	Statistics
7	4 (0.394 %)	Spanish Language
8	3 (0.295 %)	Fat Client
8	3 (0.295 %)	Celerra
8	3 (0.295 %)	PDA
8	3 (0.295 %)	CLARiiON
8	3 (0.295 %)	EMC Centera
8	3 (0.295 %)	Mainframe
8	3 (0.295 %)	Firmware

Operating Systems
1	153 (15.06 %)	Windows
2	74 (7.283 %)	Windows Server 2003
3	43 (4.232 %)	Linux
4	42 (4.134 %)	UNIX
5	23 (2.264 %)	Windows XP
5	23 (2.264 %)	Windows Server 2008
6	20 (1.969 %)	Windows 2000
7	18 (1.772 %)	Windows 2000 Server
8	14 (1.378 %)	Solaris
9	10 (0.984 %)	Windows Vista
10	6 (0.591 %)	Red Hat Linux
10	6 (0.591 %)	Windows NT
10	6 (0.591 %)	HPUX
11	4 (0.394 %)	NetWare
11	4 (0.394 %)	Red Hat Enterprise Linux
12	2 (0.197 %)	Mac OS
12	2 (0.197 %)	AIX
13	1 (0.098 %)	Mac OS X

Processes & Methodologies
1	152 (14.96 %)	Network Design
2	86 (8.465 %)	ITIL
3	55 (5.413 %)	Migration
4	48 (4.724 %)	Project Management
5	44 (4.331 %)	Load Balancing
6	32 (3.150 %)	Change Management
7	27 (2.657 %)	PRINCE2
8	20 (1.969 %)	Service Delivery
9	14 (1.378 %)	Time Management
10	13 (1.280 %)	Validation
10	13 (1.280 %)	Disaster Recovery
11	12 (1.181 %)	Problem Management
12	10 (0.984 %)	Technical Architecture
12	10 (0.984 %)	Identity Management
13	9 (0.886 %)	E-Commerce
14	8 (0.787 %)	Service Management
14	8 (0.787 %)	Configuration Management
14	8 (0.787 %)	Incident Management
15	7 (0.689 %)	Project Planning
15	7 (0.689 %)	Fault Management

Programming Languages
1	18 (1.772 %)	SQL
2	11 (1.083 %)	C
3	6 (0.591 %)	PowerShell
4	5 (0.492 %)	VB
5	3 (0.295 %)	PHP
6	1 (0.098 %)	Java
6	1 (0.098 %)	Perl
6	1 (0.098 %)	VBScript

Qualifications
1	520 (51.18 %)	CCNP
2	505 (49.70 %)	CCNA
3	229 (22.54 %)	CCIE
4	171 (16.83 %)	Security Cleared
5	129 (12.70 %)	Microsoft Certification
6	121 (11.91 %)	MCSE
7	119 (11.71 %)	SC Cleared
8	66 (6.496 %)	CCVP
9	65 (6.398 %)	CCDP
10	42 (4.134 %)	CCSP
11	32 (3.150 %)	CCIP
12	27 (2.657 %)	DV Cleared
13	24 (2.362 %)	MCP
14	22 (2.165 %)	MCSA
15	18 (1.772 %)	CCSA
15	18 (1.772 %)	Degree
16	17 (1.673 %)	CCDA
16	17 (1.673 %)	CISSP
17	14 (1.378 %)	CCSE
18	11 (1.083 %)	PRINCE2 Certification

Quality Assurance & Compliance
1	37 (3.642 %)	SLA
2	5 (0.492 %)	QA
3	2 (0.197 %)	PCI DSS
3	2 (0.197 %)	ISO27001
3	2 (0.197 %)	ISO9000
4	1 (0.098 %)	ISO9001
4	1 (0.098 %)	Sarbanes-Oxley
4	1 (0.098 %)	ISO17799

System Software
1	93 (9.154 %)	Active Directory
2	18 (1.772 %)	VMware ESX
3	16 (1.575 %)	VMware Infrastructure
4	8 (0.787 %)	ISA Server
5	7 (0.689 %)	Citrix Presentation Server
6	6 (0.591 %)	Terminal Services
6	6 (0.591 %)	Backup Exec
7	5 (0.492 %)	MetaFrame
8	4 (0.394 %)	XenApp
9	3 (0.295 %)	Hyper-V
9	3 (0.295 %)	Squid
10	2 (0.197 %)	Snort
11	1 (0.098 %)	MailMarshal
11	1 (0.098 %)	WebMarshal
11	1 (0.098 %)	VMware Server
11	1 (0.098 %)	XenServer

Systems Management
1	81 (7.972 %)	CiscoWorks
2	64 (6.299 %)	OpenView
3	24 (2.362 %)	HP NNM
4	13 (1.280 %)	Cisco IPCC
5	10 (0.984 %)	Cacti
6	9 (0.886 %)	SCOM
7	8 (0.787 %)	BMC PATROL
8	7 (0.689 %)	Systems Management Server (SMS)
8	7 (0.689 %)	SCCM
9	6 (0.591 %)	MOM
10	5 (0.492 %)	Tivoli
10	5 (0.492 %)	Netcool
10	5 (0.492 %)	ServiceCenter
10	5 (0.492 %)	WhatsUp Gold
11	2 (0.197 %)	OpenView Configuration Management
11	2 (0.197 %)	MIMEsweeper
11	2 (0.197 %)	MAILsweeper
11	2 (0.197 %)	OVPI
11	2 (0.197 %)	ARCserve
12	1 (0.098 %)	ZENworks

Vendors
1	801 (78.84 %)	Cisco
2	172 (16.93 %)	CheckPoint
3	125 (12.30 %)	Juniper
4	101 (9.941 %)	Microsoft
5	88 (8.661 %)	HP
6	85 (8.366 %)	Nokia
7	58 (5.709 %)	Nortel
8	57 (5.610 %)	Citrix
9	56 (5.512 %)	VMware
10	26 (2.559 %)	IBM
11	21 (2.067 %)	Avaya
12	18 (1.772 %)	Blue Coat
13	15 (1.476 %)	Lucent
14	14 (1.378 %)	SolarWinds
15	13 (1.280 %)	EMC
16	12 (1.181 %)	Alcatel
16	12 (1.181 %)	3Com
16	12 (1.181 %)	NetScout
17	10 (0.984 %)	Mitel
18	9 (0.886 %)	Dell

CCNP, CCNP Study Guide, CCNP training, CCNP test questions

2009-07-29T00:03:00.000-07:00

CCNP Study

CCNP Study Guide

Cisco Callmanager


Written by Wendell E. Jaynes
Sunday, 08 March 2009

As with the 3Com NBX 100, the Cisco product uses quality of service settings to ensure voice quality on a busy LAN. Unlike the NBX phones, the Cisco IP phones are NetMeeting enabled. This means that you can perform NetMeeting tasks, such as video conferencing and application sharing, simply by hitting a button on your Cisco phone. The phones are available in 12- and 30-feature button versions for $550 and $650 (list), respectively. Because the system will work with almost any trunk line gateway, it is fairly scalable; you can populate a single LAN with several hundred IP phones. As with the 3Com NBX phones, the Cisco IP phones provide dual 10-Mbps Ethernet ports that can take a phone and a client PC to the same wall jack.

The CallManager costs $14,995 list and is sold separately from the IP phones. The software runs on Windows NT and requires Microsoft Internet Information Server to access the menu via a standard browser. We found it easy to install the IP phones and set up the users. Each phone includes a DHCP client that can automatically an address. On the administrator side, all we had to do was provide a range of IP addresses for the phones. We found it easy to assign a phone number and a user name to each phone. The bundled voice mail system was also easy to set up, and the user can perform several tasks using the handset, including recording a message and setting up the voice mailbox.

As do all of the products we reviewed except the Mitel system, the CallManager lets you forward any voice mail you receive to an SMTP e-mail address. The message is recorded and saved as a WAV file, which the e-mail recipient can open and listen to.

The administration utility is fairly straightforward, mainly because the product lacks detailed user control settings. The CallManager software will integrate with any LDAP-compliant database, so you can import user information into your phone directory.

Cisco CCNP Certification Training Courses and Classes

2009-07-28T23:51:00.000-07:00

Cisco CCNP Certification Training Courses

Move up the IT ladder and obtain your Cisco Certified Network Professional certification by taking our CCNP training course. As a CCNP professional, you will be able to work with converged local and wide area networks with between 100 and 500 nodes including installation, configuration, operation, and troubleshooting. You are also able to manage the network's core routers and switchers as well as integrate various applications into the networks such as voice, wireless, and security.

In order to gain this knowledge and these skills, our CCNP training course will help you prepare for the four exams needed to get the certification. Our CCNP certification training course will not only prepare you fro the exam, but also emphasize real-word scenarios and techniques, so that you are totally ready for any on-the-job networking challenge.

We offer various delivery methods for our CCNP certification training course that easily fits into anybody's schedule. An effective way to prepare for certification is to choose our CBT or online training courses that allow you set your own learning schedule. You can tailor your studies to your hectic schedule. If you prefer to learn from a live subject matter expert, our Cisco certification training courses also come in onsite and boot camp options.

Available Cisco CCNP Training Methods
	Self Study Training Videos - Online / CD-Roms

Forget about having to prepare for your Cisco certification exam on your own and take our CCNP CBT course that will teach you everything you will face on the examination. With our CCNP computer based training course, you will learn everything needed to master the certification exam from leading Cisco experts, who will pass down all their knowledge down to you. Our CCNP training videos features quizzes, assessments, demos, discussion and more and comes in full-motion video that makes you feel as if the instructor is teaching right in front of you. Since our self-study CCNP CBT is self-guided, you have to freedom to learn on your own time, making our CCNP training videos perfect for busy professionals.

CCNP Boot Camps - All Inclusive - Atlanta, GA

Held in Atlanta, Georgia for a rigorous five days, our CCNP bootcamp course will teach you everything you need to know to master the Cisco certification exam on you very first try. Those in need of a Cisco certification in a hurry can benefit from our CCNP training course since our certified Cisco experts will teach you everything you will encounter on the exam in week's time. Prices for the CCNP boot camp course include airfare to Atlanta, hotel for five-days with breakfast and lunch, textbooks, software material and even onsite testing at the end of the course.

CCNP Online Live - Virtual Boot Camp Classes

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If you've always wanted to attend a Cisco boot camp but didn't want to travel, the virtual Cisco CCNP boot camp is the perfect alternative. You'll get all of the same CCNP online bootcamp training in a virtual environment – complete with hands-on labs on live equipment and in-depth coverage of BSCI, BCMSN, ONT, and ISCW topics. These online CCNP bootcamp classes thoroughly prepare you for the CCNP exams as well as give you the hands-on experience you need. With CCNP online bootcamp training, the hassles of travel and scheduling have been virtually eliminated! Spend your time studying, not traveling.

Onsite Cisco CCNP Certification Training - Flat Instructor Fee - Bring the Training to Your Office

Learn from leading certified Cisco instructors when you sign up for our CCNP onsite training program. These subject matter experts will teach you everything you need to know to successfully pass the Cisco certification exam on the first try. Taking our onsite CCNP training course will allow you to get the Cisco certification that will prove to the IT world that you are able to get the job done right. The CCNP onsite training course will teach you via discussions, lectures, graphs, demos, interactive components and hands-on activities. Learning from a live instructor in our CCNP onsite training course allows you to get your questions answered right on the spot!

What is 640-802 exam?

2009-07-19T11:46:00.000-07:00

640-802 Exam Introduction:

640-802 exam is combined exam for CCNA certification. You need to prepare yourself Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices (part 1 and part2).

This exam will check your knowledge and skills for installing, operating and troubleshooting small to medium sized network inside an enterprise network. In order to pass your exam , you can try 640-802 practice exam, study guides, audio exams, selftest engines, selftest software etc.

640-802 exam Syllabus:

Here are topics which are covered in 640-802 exam:

Connecting to a WAN
Implementing network security
Network types
Network media
Routing and switching fundamentals
The TCP/IP and OSI models;
IP addressing
Wan Technologies
Operating and Configuring IOS Devices
Extending switched networks using VLANS
Determining IP routes
Managing IP traffic using access lists
Establishing point and Frame Relay connections

640-802 practice exam should be pdf format or software with multiple choice questions and answers and simulations. More details about exam preparation is available on cisco official website or you can try search engines to check out latest information.

Cisco CCNA Jobs Worldwide, CCNA certification, CCNA exams

2009-07-19T11:37:00.000-07:00

Every IT professional looking for CCNA cortication is interested to know about growth for ccna jobs and demand of ccna certification in IT industry. However when you are going to start your career as a cisco ccna professional you can start it with ccna temporary jobs to get some practical knowledge and professional experience to get job in USA, UK, Altlanta ga, tampa, Asia and Europe etc. The CCNA certified could get job in the following possible positions.

CCNA Job Titles and their Responsibilities:

Here are probable ccna job titles and their responsibilities, skills and duties needed worldwide. However, some companies may differ in demanded skills according to their requirements.

Network Supervisor

Requirements:

- Support Experience
- Excellent Customer Support
- Good communication skills
- CCNA certified

CCNA System Engineer

Necessary Skills:

- Advance LAN & WAN skills and good routers and switching troubleshooting
- Designing, configuration, installation and configuration skills for networking for increasing bandwidth and response times, enhance reliability and quality of service (QoS)
- Wide range of experience in supporting Windows Servers, Active Directory, Exchange 2003/ 2007
- 2nd/ 3rd line support experience

CCNA Network Engineer

Required Skills:

- Positive approach for team work with a will to learn/share knowledge

- Ability to work under pressure

- Excellent time management and organizational skills

- Show initiative and understand how to set expectation levels, both internally and externally

- Excellent interpersonal skills

- Flexible and enthusiastic approach

Performance Fault Manager

Skills Required:

- Practical experience as a Network Performance Fault Manager

- Enterprise operations and maintenance experience in running environment highly desired

- Proficiency in MS Word, Excel and PowerPoint

- Ability to communicate both orally and in writing

VOIP Network Engineer

Responsibilities:

- Managing Network Operations aspects.

- Ensure sufficient coverage to monitor production systems and resolve issues on a timely basis.

- Responsible for the running, coaching and development of Network Operations Team

- Major on-call responsibilities and management of on-call personnel

- Technical knowledge in depth and understanding of Network, Firewall, VoIP/Turret/TDM telephony and video.

- Experienced at network and system troubleshooting, monitoring tools, alarm conditions, and escalation processes and procedures.

Network Performance Manager

Responsibilities:

- To operate fault management software and Marine Corps network management software which receives alarms and alerts from monitored equipment which automatically relates useful information and enter that information in double ticket system.

- Fault Identification, isolation and correction of any network routing communications problems and hardware / software components.

- To provide input to network trend analysis and capacity analysis

- To define server build procedures and server configuration procedures, directory architecture

- To provide technology migration support for MCNOSC architecture needed.

- To create and maintain documentation body, relevant standard operating procedures which explains the execution of technical problem solutions.

Network Operations Engineer

Responsibilities:

- To find out troubles identified by network to monitor and resolve issues.

- Monitoring, troubleshooting and correcting server all network problems and other live broadcasting issues.

- To work with third parties (engineers, system architectures, infrastructure vendors, customers and developers) to cut down problems and achieve results.

- And others according to company requirements.

Field Technician

Responsibilities:

- Responsible to manage network operations to provide highest quality data communication services possible for assisting network operations.

- To participate in building and maintaining state of art transport network and configure network elements to support voice, video and data traffic.

- To provide support for video services and manager cisco IOS network and juniper network firewall to configure and implement access policies.

- To monitor network characteristics, maintain logs and to follow procedures responding affectively in tolerance conditions and outages.

- To analyse, diagnose and correct network hardware and software issues concerning with data delivery to cut down network downtime.

- To participate in study and research programs to develop new system and management tools.

- To assist in installation and maintenance activities for contractors training and technical staff.

Systems Analyst

Responsibilities:

- Installation, configuration, supporting and troubleshooting firewalls/switches/routers module and installation and upgrades.

- To access control for inbound and outbound traffics for routers and firewalls.

- To configure VPN, routing, IOS configuration for switches, Access control installation, network management software installation and configuration.

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