CCNA 640-802 Certification Exam - Cheat-test.com
Amount: 514 Questions and verified answers
Last Update: July 2009
Free testking 640-802 questions
Pass4sure CCNA braindumps download
Friday, July 10, 2009
640-822 Exam Prep - Just updated
Cisco 640-822 Exam - Cheat-Test.com
Cheat-test just released the updated version of CCNA 640-822 exam in July 2009.
Free 640-822 Exam Questions:
1. Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
C. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
D. to protect the IP and MAC address of the switch and associated ports
E. to block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces over common TCP ports
Answer: C
2. Which two statements best describe the wireless security standard that is defined by WPA? (Choose two.)
A. It specifies use of a static encryption key that must be changed frequently to enhance security.
B. It requires use of an open authentication method.
C. It specifies the use of dynamic encryption keys that change each time a client establishes a connection.
D. It requires that all access points and wireless devices use the same encryption key.
E. It includes authentication by PSK.
Answer: C, E
3. Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? (Choose two.)
A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.
Answer: B, E
4. Assuming a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, which three addresses are valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
A. 172.16.8.0
B. 172.16.9.0
C. 172.16.16.0
D. 172.16.20.0
E. 172.16.24.0
F. 172.16.31.0
Answer: B, D, F
5. Which form of NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a single registered IP address by using different ports?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. overloading
D. overlapping
E. port loading
Answer: C
6. What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?
A. Allow users to develop their own approach to network security.
B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals.
C. Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood of passwords being forgotten.
D. Delay deployment of software patches and updates until their effect on end-user equipment is well known and widely reported.
E. Minimize network overhead by deactivating automatic antivirus client updates.
Answer: B
7. A single 802.11g access point has been configured and installed in the center of a square office. A few wireless users are experiencing slow performance and drops while most users are operating at peak efficiency. What are three likely causes of this problem? (Choose three.)
A. mismatched TKIP encryption
B. null SSID
C. cordless phones
D. mismatched SSID
E. metal file cabinets
F. antenna type or direction
Answer: C, E, F
8. What two actions must a router take in order to route incoming packets? (Choose two.)
A. Identify the destination network address of each packet.
B. Identify the source network address of each packet.
C. Validate sources of routing information.
D. Inspect the routing table to select the best path to the destination network address.
E. Verify the receipt of routed packets by the next hop router.
F. Inspect the ARP table to verify a legitimate source MAC address for each packet.
Answer: A, D
9. What are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from outside network security threats? (Choose two.)
A. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.
B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.
C. Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted.
D. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
E. Prevent the loss of passwords by disabling password encryption.
Answer: B, D
10. Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)
A. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
B. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
C. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0
D. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
E. The network is not subnetted.
Answer: B, D
11. At which layer of the OSI model does the protocol that provides the information displayed by the show cdp neighbors command operate?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
E. application
Answer: B
12. Which of the following describe private IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. addresses chosen by a company to communicate with the Internet
B. addresses that cannot be routed through the public Internet
C. addresses that can be routed through the public Internet
D. a scheme to conserve public addresses
E. addresses licensed to enterprises or ISPs by an Internet registry organization
Answer: B, D
13. WAN data link encapsulation types include which of the following? (Choose two.)
A. T1
B. Frame Relay
C. DSL
D. PPP
E. ISDN
Answer: B, D
14. Which of the following are found in a TCP header, but not in a UDP header? (Choose three.)
A. sequence number
B. acknowledgment number
C. source port
D. destination port
E. window size
F. checksum
Answer: A, B, E
15. What is the subnet address of 172.16.159.159/22?
A. 172.16.0.0
B. 172.16.128.0
C. 172.16.156.0
D. 172.16.159.0
E. 172.16.159.128
F. 172.16.192.0
Answer: C
Like actual certification exams our 640-822 Exam is in multiple-choice questions (MCQs). After purchasing our products you are just a step away from testing for certification. Still not convinced? Try our free samples or choose to buy your 640-822 Practice Exam now!
Our 640-822 practice exams and study questions are composed by current and active Information Technology experts, who use their experience in preparing you for your future in IT.
Cheat-test just released the updated version of CCNA 640-822 exam in July 2009.
Free 640-822 Exam Questions:
1. Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
C. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
D. to protect the IP and MAC address of the switch and associated ports
E. to block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces over common TCP ports
Answer: C
2. Which two statements best describe the wireless security standard that is defined by WPA? (Choose two.)
A. It specifies use of a static encryption key that must be changed frequently to enhance security.
B. It requires use of an open authentication method.
C. It specifies the use of dynamic encryption keys that change each time a client establishes a connection.
D. It requires that all access points and wireless devices use the same encryption key.
E. It includes authentication by PSK.
Answer: C, E
3. Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? (Choose two.)
A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.
Answer: B, E
4. Assuming a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, which three addresses are valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
A. 172.16.8.0
B. 172.16.9.0
C. 172.16.16.0
D. 172.16.20.0
E. 172.16.24.0
F. 172.16.31.0
Answer: B, D, F
5. Which form of NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a single registered IP address by using different ports?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. overloading
D. overlapping
E. port loading
Answer: C
6. What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?
A. Allow users to develop their own approach to network security.
B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals.
C. Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood of passwords being forgotten.
D. Delay deployment of software patches and updates until their effect on end-user equipment is well known and widely reported.
E. Minimize network overhead by deactivating automatic antivirus client updates.
Answer: B
7. A single 802.11g access point has been configured and installed in the center of a square office. A few wireless users are experiencing slow performance and drops while most users are operating at peak efficiency. What are three likely causes of this problem? (Choose three.)
A. mismatched TKIP encryption
B. null SSID
C. cordless phones
D. mismatched SSID
E. metal file cabinets
F. antenna type or direction
Answer: C, E, F
8. What two actions must a router take in order to route incoming packets? (Choose two.)
A. Identify the destination network address of each packet.
B. Identify the source network address of each packet.
C. Validate sources of routing information.
D. Inspect the routing table to select the best path to the destination network address.
E. Verify the receipt of routed packets by the next hop router.
F. Inspect the ARP table to verify a legitimate source MAC address for each packet.
Answer: A, D
9. What are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from outside network security threats? (Choose two.)
A. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.
B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.
C. Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted.
D. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
E. Prevent the loss of passwords by disabling password encryption.
Answer: B, D
10. Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)
A. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
B. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
C. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0
D. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
E. The network is not subnetted.
Answer: B, D
11. At which layer of the OSI model does the protocol that provides the information displayed by the show cdp neighbors command operate?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
E. application
Answer: B
12. Which of the following describe private IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. addresses chosen by a company to communicate with the Internet
B. addresses that cannot be routed through the public Internet
C. addresses that can be routed through the public Internet
D. a scheme to conserve public addresses
E. addresses licensed to enterprises or ISPs by an Internet registry organization
Answer: B, D
13. WAN data link encapsulation types include which of the following? (Choose two.)
A. T1
B. Frame Relay
C. DSL
D. PPP
E. ISDN
Answer: B, D
14. Which of the following are found in a TCP header, but not in a UDP header? (Choose three.)
A. sequence number
B. acknowledgment number
C. source port
D. destination port
E. window size
F. checksum
Answer: A, B, E
15. What is the subnet address of 172.16.159.159/22?
A. 172.16.0.0
B. 172.16.128.0
C. 172.16.156.0
D. 172.16.159.0
E. 172.16.159.128
F. 172.16.192.0
Answer: C
Like actual certification exams our 640-822 Exam is in multiple-choice questions (MCQs). After purchasing our products you are just a step away from testing for certification. Still not convinced? Try our free samples or choose to buy your 640-822 Practice Exam now!
Our 640-822 practice exams and study questions are composed by current and active Information Technology experts, who use their experience in preparing you for your future in IT.
Free CCNA 640-816 exam questions, 640-816 braindumps rapidshare
Cheat-test 640-816 Exam Prep will provide you with exam questions and verified answers that reflect the actual exam. These questions and answers provide you with the experience of taking the actual test. Our 640-816 Exam is not just questions and answers. They are your access to high technical expertise and accelerated learning capacity. Certification Experts, Certified Computer Trainers, Technical Coworker and Comprehensive Language Masters, who have a solid, verified and certified background and high technical expertise, have compiled these detailed questions and answers. CCNA Certification preparation Q and A provided by Cheat-test.com will make you feel like you are taking an actual exam at a Prometric or VUE center.
Cisco 640-816 Exam - Cheat-Test.com
Free 640-816 Sample Questions:
1. Refer to the exhibit. A junior network engineer has prepared the exhibited configuration file.
What two statements are true of the planned configuration for interface fa0/1? (Choose two.)
A.The two FastEthernet interfaces will require NAT configured on two outside serial interfaces.
B.Address translation on fa0/1 is not required for DMZ Devices to access the Internet. C.The fa0/1 IP address overlaps with the space used by s0/0.
D.The fa0/1 IP address is invalid for the IP subnet on which it resides.
E.Internet hosts may not initiate connections to DMZ Devices through the configuration that is shown.
Answer: B E
2.Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes DLCI 17?
A.DLCI 17 describes the ISDN circuit between R2 and R3.
B.DLCI 17 describes a PVC on R2. It cannot be used on R3 or R1.
C.DLCI 17 is the Layer 2 address used by R2 to describe a PVC to R3.
D.DLCI 17 describes the dialup circuit from R2 and R3 to the service provider.
Answer: C
3.What is the default Local Management Interface frame type transmitted by a Cisco router on a Frame Relay circuit?
A.Q933a
B.B8ZS
C.IETF
D.Cisco E.ANSI
Answer: D
4.Refer to the exhibit. The network shown in the exhibit has just been installed. Host B can access the Internet, but it is unable to ping host C. What is the problem with this configuration?
A.Host B should be in VLAN 13.
B.The address of host C is incorrect.
C.The gateway for host B is in a different subnet than the host is on.
D.The switch port that sends VLAN 13 frames from the switch to the router is shut down. E.The switch port connected to the router is incorrectly configured as an access port.
Answer: B
5.What are three valid reasons to assign ports to VLANs on a switch? (Choose three.)
A.to make VTP easier to implement
B.to isolate broadcast traffic
C.to increase the size of the collision domain
D.to allow more devices to connect to the network
E.to logically group hosts according to function
F.to increase network security
Answer: B E F
6.Refer to the exhibit. The router has been configured with these commands: hostname Gateway interface FastEthernet 0/0 ip address 198.133.219.14 255.255.255.248 no shutdown interface FastEthernet 0/1 ip address 192.168.10.254 255.255.255.0 no shutdown interface Serial 0/0 ip address 64.100.0.2 255.255.255.252 no shutdown ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 64.100.0.1 What are the two results of this configuration? (Choose two.)
A.The default route should have a next hop address of 64.100.0.3.
B.Hosts on the LAN that is connected to FastEthernet 0/1 are using public IP addressing.
C.The address of the subnet segment with the WWW server will support seven more servers. D.The addressing scheme allows users on the Internet to access the WWW server.
E.Hosts on the LAN that is connected to FastEthernet 0/1 will not be able to access the Internet without address translation.
Answer: D, E
7.A router has been configured to provide the nine users on the branch office LAN with Internet access, as shown in the diagram. It is found that some of the users on the LAN cannot reach the Internet. Based on the topology and router output shown, which command should be issued on the router to correct the problem?
A.Branch(configif)# no shutdown
B.Branch(configif)# duplex full
C.Branch(configif)# no keepalive
D.Branch(configif)# ip address 192.168.10.30 255.255.255.240
E.Branch(configif)# bandwidth 100
F.Branch(configif)# encapsulation 802.3
Answer: D
8.Refer to the exhibit. Two routers have just been configured by a new technician. All interfaces are up. However, the routers are not sharing their routing tables. What is the problem?
A.Split horizon is preventing Router2 from receiving routing information from Router1.
B.Router1 is configured for RIP version 2, and Router2 is configured for RIP version 1.
C.Router1 has an ACL that is blocking RIP version 2.
D.There is a physical connectivity problem between Router1 and Router2.
E.Router1 is using authentication and Router2 is not.
Answer: B
9.Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the debug command?
A.The output represents normal OSPF operation.
B.The interfaces of two OSPF routers connected to the Border router are in the same subnet.
C.The OSPF router connected to interface Serial0/1 has NOT formed a neighbor relationship with the Border router.
D.A router is connected to interface Serial0/3 of the Border router. The OSPF router ID of the connected router is the IP address of the connected interface.
Answer: C
10.Refer to the output from the show runningconfig command in the exhibit. What should the administrator do to allow the workstations connected to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface to obtain an IP address?
A.Apply accessgroup 14 to interface FastEthernet 0/0.
B.Add accesslist 14 permit any any to the access list configuration.
C.Configure the IP address of the FastEtherent 0/0 interface to 10.90.201.1.
D.Add an interface description to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface configuration.
Answer: C
11.S0/0 on R1 is configured as a multipoint interface to communicate with R2 and R3 in the hubandspoke Frame Relay topology shown in the exhibit. Originally, static routes were configured between these routers to successfully route traffic between the attached networks. What will need to be done in order to use RIP v2 in place of the static routes?
A.Configure the no ip subnetzero command on R1, R2, and R3.
B.Dynamic routing protocols such as RIP v2 cannot be used across Frame Relay networks.
C.Configure the s0/0 interface on R1 as two subinterfaces and configure pointtopoint links to R2 and R3.
D.Change the 172.16.2.0/25 and 172.16.2.128/25 subnetworks so that at least two bits are borrowed from the last octet.
E.Change the network address configurations to eliminate the discontiguous 172.16.2.0/25 and 172.16.2.128/25 subnetworks.
Answer: C
12.Refer to the exhibit. HostA cannot ping HostB. Assuming routing is properly configured, what could be the cause of this problem?
A.HostA is not on the same subnet as its default gateway.
B.The address of SwitchA is a subnet address.
C.The Fa0/0 interface on RouterA is on a subnet that can't be used.
D.The serial interfaces of the routers are not on the same subnet. E.The Fa0/0 interface on RouterB is using a broadcast address.
Answer: D
13.Refer to the exhibit. The routers are running RIPv2. Which addressing scheme would satisfy the needs of this network yet waste the fewest addresses?
A.Network 1: 192.168.10.0/26 Network 2: 192.168.10.64/26 Network 3: 192.168.10.128/26 Serial link 1:
192.168.20.0/24 Serial link 2: 192.168.30.0/24
B.Network 1: 192.168.10.0/26 Network 2: 192.168.10.64/28 Network 3: 192.168.10.80/29 Serial link 1:
192.168.10.88/30 Serial link 2: 192.168.10.96/30
C.Network 1: 192.168.10.0/26 Network 2: 192.168.10.64/27 Network 3: 192.168.10.96/28 Serial link 1:
192.168.10.112/30 Serial link 2: 192.168.10.116/30
D.Network 1: 192.168.10.0/27 Network 2: 192.168.10.64/28 Network 3: 192.168.10.96/29 Serial link 1:
192.168.10.112/30 Serial link 2: 192.168.10.116/30
Answer: C
14.Refer to the exhibit. At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?
A.Switch3, port fa0/1
B.Switch3, port fa0/12
C.Switch4, port fa0/11
D.Switch4, port fa0/2
E.Switch3, port Gi0/1
F.Switch3, port Gi0/2
Answer: C
15.Refer to the exhibit. The Lakeside Company has the internetwork in the exhibit. The administrator would like to reduce the size of the routing table on the Central router. Which partial routing table entry in the Central router represents a route summary that represents the LANs in Phoenix but no additional subnets?
A.10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets D10.0.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
B.10.0.0.0/28 is subnetted, 1 subnets D10.2.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
C.10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets D10.2.2.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
D.10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets D10.4.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
E.10.0.0.0/28 is subnetted, 1 subnets D10.4.4.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
F.10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.4.4.4 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
Answer: D
16.Refer to the exhibit. What does STATUS=ACTIVE refer to in the output of the show framerelay pvc command?
A.The PVC is experiencing congestion.
B.The Frame Relay switch is correctly programmed with the DLCI and is operational.
C.The router is actively broadcasting to establish a link to the Frame Relay switch.
D.The router is connected to the local Frame Relay switch, but not to the far end device.
Answer: B
17.The network administrator of the Oregon router adds the following command to the router configuration: ip route 192.168.12.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.12.1. What are the results of adding this command? (Choose two.)
A.The command establishes a static route.
B.The command invokes a dynamic routing protocol for 192.168.12.0. C.Traffic for network 192.168.12.0 is forwarded to 172.16.12.1.
D.Traffic for all networks is forwarded to 172.16.12.1.
E.This route is automatically propagated throughout the entire network. F.Traffic for network 172.16.12.0 is forwarded to the 192.168.12.0 network.
Answer: A, C
18.Refer to the graphic. Users on the Holyoke router are unable to access the intranet server attached to interface E0 of the Chicopee router. Inspection of the routing table of the Holyoke router shows that an entry for the Chicopee E0 network is missing. Which command will configure
the Holyoke router with a path to the intranet server network?
A.Holyoke(config)# ip host Chicopee 201.73.127.2
B.Holyoke(config)# ip host Chicopee 201.73.127.0 255.255.255.0
C.Holyoke(config)# ip network 202.18.38.0
D.Holyoke(config)# ip network 202.18.18.0 255.255.255.0
E.Holyoke(config)# ip route 202.18.18.0 255.255.255.0 201.73.127.2
F.Holyoke(config)# ip route 201.73.127.2 255.255.255.0 202.18.18.0
Answer: E
19.A network administrator would like to implement NAT in the network shown in the graphic to allow inside hosts to use a private addressing scheme. Where should NAT be configured?
A.Corporate router
B.Engineering router
C.Sales router
D.all routers
E.all routers and switches
Answer: A
20.The company internetwork is subnetted using 29 bits. Which wildcard mask should be used to configure an extended access list to permit or deny access to an entire subnetwork? A.255.255.255.224
B.255.255.255.248
C.0.0.0.224
D.0.0.0.8
E.0.0.0.7
F.0.0.0.3
Answer: E
21.A network administrator must configure 200 switch ports to accept traffic from only the currently attached host devices. What would be the most efficient way to configure MAClevel security on all these ports?
A.Visually verify the MAC addresses and then telnet to the switches to enter the switchportport security macaddress command.
B.Have end users email their MAC addresses. Telnet to the switch to enter the switchportport security macaddress command.
C.Use the switchport portsecurity MAC address sticky command on all the switch ports that have end devices connected to them.
D.Use show macaddresstable to determine the addresses that are associated with each port and then enter the commands on each switch for MAC address portsecurity.
Answer: C
22.When are packets processed by an inbound access list?
A.before they are routed to an outbound interface
B.after they are routed to an outbound interface
C.before and after they are routed to an outbound interface
D.after they are routed to an outbound interface but before being placed in the outbound queue
Answer: A
23.In which circumstance are multiple copies of the same unicast frame likely to be transmitted in a switched LAN?
A.during high traffic periods
B.after broken links are reestablished
C.when upperlayer protocols require high reliability
D.in an improperly implemented redundant topology E.when a dual ring topology is in use
Answer: D
24.Which PPP subprotocol negotiates authentication options?
A.NCP
B.ISDN
C.SLIP
D.LCP
E.DLCI
Answer: D
25.A network administrator is configuring the routers in the graphic for OSPF. The OSPF process has been started and the networks have been configured for Area 0 as shown in the diagram. The network administrator has several options for configuring RouterB to ensure that it will be preferred as the designated router (DR) for the 172.16.1.0 /24 LAN segment. What configuration tasks could be used to establish this preference? (Choose three.)
A.Configure the priority value of the Fa0/0 interface of RouterB to a higher value than any other interface on the Ethernet network.
B.Change the router id of Router B by assigning the IP address 172.16.1.130/24 to the Fa0/0 interface of RouterB.
C.Configure a loopback interface on RouterB with an IP address higher than any IP address on the other routers.
D.Change the priority value of the Fa0/0 interface of RouterB to zero.
E.Change the priority values of the Fa0/0 interfaces of RouterA and RouterC to zero. F.No further configuration is necessary.
Answer: A, C, E
26.Which statements are true about EIGRP successor routes? (Choose two.)
A.A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination.
B.Successor routes are saved in the topology table to be used if the primary route fails.
C.Successor routes are flagged as "active" in the routing table.
D.A successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route.
E.Successor routes are stored in the neighbor table following the discovery process.
Answer: A, D
All Exhibits and diagrams available here
Cisco 640-816 Exam - Cheat-Test.com
Free 640-816 Sample Questions:
1. Refer to the exhibit. A junior network engineer has prepared the exhibited configuration file.
What two statements are true of the planned configuration for interface fa0/1? (Choose two.)
A.The two FastEthernet interfaces will require NAT configured on two outside serial interfaces.
B.Address translation on fa0/1 is not required for DMZ Devices to access the Internet. C.The fa0/1 IP address overlaps with the space used by s0/0.
D.The fa0/1 IP address is invalid for the IP subnet on which it resides.
E.Internet hosts may not initiate connections to DMZ Devices through the configuration that is shown.
Answer: B E
2.Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes DLCI 17?
A.DLCI 17 describes the ISDN circuit between R2 and R3.
B.DLCI 17 describes a PVC on R2. It cannot be used on R3 or R1.
C.DLCI 17 is the Layer 2 address used by R2 to describe a PVC to R3.
D.DLCI 17 describes the dialup circuit from R2 and R3 to the service provider.
Answer: C
3.What is the default Local Management Interface frame type transmitted by a Cisco router on a Frame Relay circuit?
A.Q933a
B.B8ZS
C.IETF
D.Cisco E.ANSI
Answer: D
4.Refer to the exhibit. The network shown in the exhibit has just been installed. Host B can access the Internet, but it is unable to ping host C. What is the problem with this configuration?
A.Host B should be in VLAN 13.
B.The address of host C is incorrect.
C.The gateway for host B is in a different subnet than the host is on.
D.The switch port that sends VLAN 13 frames from the switch to the router is shut down. E.The switch port connected to the router is incorrectly configured as an access port.
Answer: B
5.What are three valid reasons to assign ports to VLANs on a switch? (Choose three.)
A.to make VTP easier to implement
B.to isolate broadcast traffic
C.to increase the size of the collision domain
D.to allow more devices to connect to the network
E.to logically group hosts according to function
F.to increase network security
Answer: B E F
6.Refer to the exhibit. The router has been configured with these commands: hostname Gateway interface FastEthernet 0/0 ip address 198.133.219.14 255.255.255.248 no shutdown interface FastEthernet 0/1 ip address 192.168.10.254 255.255.255.0 no shutdown interface Serial 0/0 ip address 64.100.0.2 255.255.255.252 no shutdown ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 64.100.0.1 What are the two results of this configuration? (Choose two.)
A.The default route should have a next hop address of 64.100.0.3.
B.Hosts on the LAN that is connected to FastEthernet 0/1 are using public IP addressing.
C.The address of the subnet segment with the WWW server will support seven more servers. D.The addressing scheme allows users on the Internet to access the WWW server.
E.Hosts on the LAN that is connected to FastEthernet 0/1 will not be able to access the Internet without address translation.
Answer: D, E
7.A router has been configured to provide the nine users on the branch office LAN with Internet access, as shown in the diagram. It is found that some of the users on the LAN cannot reach the Internet. Based on the topology and router output shown, which command should be issued on the router to correct the problem?
A.Branch(configif)# no shutdown
B.Branch(configif)# duplex full
C.Branch(configif)# no keepalive
D.Branch(configif)# ip address 192.168.10.30 255.255.255.240
E.Branch(configif)# bandwidth 100
F.Branch(configif)# encapsulation 802.3
Answer: D
8.Refer to the exhibit. Two routers have just been configured by a new technician. All interfaces are up. However, the routers are not sharing their routing tables. What is the problem?
A.Split horizon is preventing Router2 from receiving routing information from Router1.
B.Router1 is configured for RIP version 2, and Router2 is configured for RIP version 1.
C.Router1 has an ACL that is blocking RIP version 2.
D.There is a physical connectivity problem between Router1 and Router2.
E.Router1 is using authentication and Router2 is not.
Answer: B
9.Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the debug command?
A.The output represents normal OSPF operation.
B.The interfaces of two OSPF routers connected to the Border router are in the same subnet.
C.The OSPF router connected to interface Serial0/1 has NOT formed a neighbor relationship with the Border router.
D.A router is connected to interface Serial0/3 of the Border router. The OSPF router ID of the connected router is the IP address of the connected interface.
Answer: C
10.Refer to the output from the show runningconfig command in the exhibit. What should the administrator do to allow the workstations connected to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface to obtain an IP address?
A.Apply accessgroup 14 to interface FastEthernet 0/0.
B.Add accesslist 14 permit any any to the access list configuration.
C.Configure the IP address of the FastEtherent 0/0 interface to 10.90.201.1.
D.Add an interface description to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface configuration.
Answer: C
11.S0/0 on R1 is configured as a multipoint interface to communicate with R2 and R3 in the hubandspoke Frame Relay topology shown in the exhibit. Originally, static routes were configured between these routers to successfully route traffic between the attached networks. What will need to be done in order to use RIP v2 in place of the static routes?
A.Configure the no ip subnetzero command on R1, R2, and R3.
B.Dynamic routing protocols such as RIP v2 cannot be used across Frame Relay networks.
C.Configure the s0/0 interface on R1 as two subinterfaces and configure pointtopoint links to R2 and R3.
D.Change the 172.16.2.0/25 and 172.16.2.128/25 subnetworks so that at least two bits are borrowed from the last octet.
E.Change the network address configurations to eliminate the discontiguous 172.16.2.0/25 and 172.16.2.128/25 subnetworks.
Answer: C
12.Refer to the exhibit. HostA cannot ping HostB. Assuming routing is properly configured, what could be the cause of this problem?
A.HostA is not on the same subnet as its default gateway.
B.The address of SwitchA is a subnet address.
C.The Fa0/0 interface on RouterA is on a subnet that can't be used.
D.The serial interfaces of the routers are not on the same subnet. E.The Fa0/0 interface on RouterB is using a broadcast address.
Answer: D
13.Refer to the exhibit. The routers are running RIPv2. Which addressing scheme would satisfy the needs of this network yet waste the fewest addresses?
A.Network 1: 192.168.10.0/26 Network 2: 192.168.10.64/26 Network 3: 192.168.10.128/26 Serial link 1:
192.168.20.0/24 Serial link 2: 192.168.30.0/24
B.Network 1: 192.168.10.0/26 Network 2: 192.168.10.64/28 Network 3: 192.168.10.80/29 Serial link 1:
192.168.10.88/30 Serial link 2: 192.168.10.96/30
C.Network 1: 192.168.10.0/26 Network 2: 192.168.10.64/27 Network 3: 192.168.10.96/28 Serial link 1:
192.168.10.112/30 Serial link 2: 192.168.10.116/30
D.Network 1: 192.168.10.0/27 Network 2: 192.168.10.64/28 Network 3: 192.168.10.96/29 Serial link 1:
192.168.10.112/30 Serial link 2: 192.168.10.116/30
Answer: C
14.Refer to the exhibit. At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?
A.Switch3, port fa0/1
B.Switch3, port fa0/12
C.Switch4, port fa0/11
D.Switch4, port fa0/2
E.Switch3, port Gi0/1
F.Switch3, port Gi0/2
Answer: C
15.Refer to the exhibit. The Lakeside Company has the internetwork in the exhibit. The administrator would like to reduce the size of the routing table on the Central router. Which partial routing table entry in the Central router represents a route summary that represents the LANs in Phoenix but no additional subnets?
A.10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets D10.0.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
B.10.0.0.0/28 is subnetted, 1 subnets D10.2.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
C.10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets D10.2.2.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
D.10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets D10.4.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
E.10.0.0.0/28 is subnetted, 1 subnets D10.4.4.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
F.10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.4.4.4 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
Answer: D
16.Refer to the exhibit. What does STATUS=ACTIVE refer to in the output of the show framerelay pvc command?
A.The PVC is experiencing congestion.
B.The Frame Relay switch is correctly programmed with the DLCI and is operational.
C.The router is actively broadcasting to establish a link to the Frame Relay switch.
D.The router is connected to the local Frame Relay switch, but not to the far end device.
Answer: B
17.The network administrator of the Oregon router adds the following command to the router configuration: ip route 192.168.12.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.12.1. What are the results of adding this command? (Choose two.)
A.The command establishes a static route.
B.The command invokes a dynamic routing protocol for 192.168.12.0. C.Traffic for network 192.168.12.0 is forwarded to 172.16.12.1.
D.Traffic for all networks is forwarded to 172.16.12.1.
E.This route is automatically propagated throughout the entire network. F.Traffic for network 172.16.12.0 is forwarded to the 192.168.12.0 network.
Answer: A, C
18.Refer to the graphic. Users on the Holyoke router are unable to access the intranet server attached to interface E0 of the Chicopee router. Inspection of the routing table of the Holyoke router shows that an entry for the Chicopee E0 network is missing. Which command will configure
the Holyoke router with a path to the intranet server network?
A.Holyoke(config)# ip host Chicopee 201.73.127.2
B.Holyoke(config)# ip host Chicopee 201.73.127.0 255.255.255.0
C.Holyoke(config)# ip network 202.18.38.0
D.Holyoke(config)# ip network 202.18.18.0 255.255.255.0
E.Holyoke(config)# ip route 202.18.18.0 255.255.255.0 201.73.127.2
F.Holyoke(config)# ip route 201.73.127.2 255.255.255.0 202.18.18.0
Answer: E
19.A network administrator would like to implement NAT in the network shown in the graphic to allow inside hosts to use a private addressing scheme. Where should NAT be configured?
A.Corporate router
B.Engineering router
C.Sales router
D.all routers
E.all routers and switches
Answer: A
20.The company internetwork is subnetted using 29 bits. Which wildcard mask should be used to configure an extended access list to permit or deny access to an entire subnetwork? A.255.255.255.224
B.255.255.255.248
C.0.0.0.224
D.0.0.0.8
E.0.0.0.7
F.0.0.0.3
Answer: E
21.A network administrator must configure 200 switch ports to accept traffic from only the currently attached host devices. What would be the most efficient way to configure MAClevel security on all these ports?
A.Visually verify the MAC addresses and then telnet to the switches to enter the switchportport security macaddress command.
B.Have end users email their MAC addresses. Telnet to the switch to enter the switchportport security macaddress command.
C.Use the switchport portsecurity MAC address sticky command on all the switch ports that have end devices connected to them.
D.Use show macaddresstable to determine the addresses that are associated with each port and then enter the commands on each switch for MAC address portsecurity.
Answer: C
22.When are packets processed by an inbound access list?
A.before they are routed to an outbound interface
B.after they are routed to an outbound interface
C.before and after they are routed to an outbound interface
D.after they are routed to an outbound interface but before being placed in the outbound queue
Answer: A
23.In which circumstance are multiple copies of the same unicast frame likely to be transmitted in a switched LAN?
A.during high traffic periods
B.after broken links are reestablished
C.when upperlayer protocols require high reliability
D.in an improperly implemented redundant topology E.when a dual ring topology is in use
Answer: D
24.Which PPP subprotocol negotiates authentication options?
A.NCP
B.ISDN
C.SLIP
D.LCP
E.DLCI
Answer: D
25.A network administrator is configuring the routers in the graphic for OSPF. The OSPF process has been started and the networks have been configured for Area 0 as shown in the diagram. The network administrator has several options for configuring RouterB to ensure that it will be preferred as the designated router (DR) for the 172.16.1.0 /24 LAN segment. What configuration tasks could be used to establish this preference? (Choose three.)
A.Configure the priority value of the Fa0/0 interface of RouterB to a higher value than any other interface on the Ethernet network.
B.Change the router id of Router B by assigning the IP address 172.16.1.130/24 to the Fa0/0 interface of RouterB.
C.Configure a loopback interface on RouterB with an IP address higher than any IP address on the other routers.
D.Change the priority value of the Fa0/0 interface of RouterB to zero.
E.Change the priority values of the Fa0/0 interfaces of RouterA and RouterC to zero. F.No further configuration is necessary.
Answer: A, C, E
26.Which statements are true about EIGRP successor routes? (Choose two.)
A.A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination.
B.Successor routes are saved in the topology table to be used if the primary route fails.
C.Successor routes are flagged as "active" in the routing table.
D.A successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route.
E.Successor routes are stored in the neighbor table following the discovery process.
Answer: A, D
All Exhibits and diagrams available here
Sunday, October 26, 2008
EIGRP SIM (New Updated)
LAB: EIGRP
Free Question from cheat-test.com#
After adding RTR_2 router, no routing updates are being exchanged between RTR_1 and the new location. All other inter connectivity and internet access for the existing locations of the company are working properly.
The task is to identify the fault(s) and correct the router configuration to provide full connectivity between the routers.
Access to the router CLI can be gained by clicking on the appropriate host.
All passwords on all routers are cisco.
IP addresses are listed in the chart below.
RTR_A#show run
!
!
interface FastEthernet0/0
ip address 192.168.60.97 255.255.255.240
!
interface FastEthernet0/1
ip address 192.168.60.113 255.255.255.240
!
interface Serial0/0
ip address 192.168.36.14 255.255.255.252
clockrate 64000
!
router eigrp 212
network 192.168.36.0
network 192.168.60.0
no auto-summary
!
RTR_A#show ip route
192.168.36.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets
C 192.168.36.12 is directly connected, Serial 0/0
192.168.60.0/24 is variably subnetted, 5 subnets, 2 masks
C 192.168.60.96/28 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0
C 192.168.60.112/28 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/1
D 192.168.60.128/28 [ 90/21026560 ] via 192.168.36.13, 00:00:57, Serial 0/0
D 192.168.60.144/28 [ 90/21026560 ] via 192.168.36.13, 00:00:57, Serial 0/0
D 192.168.60.24/30 [ 90/21026560 ] via 192.168.36.13, 00:00:57, Serial 0/0
D* 198.0.18.0 [ 90/21026560 ] via 192.168.36.13, 00:00:57, Serial 0/0
********************************************************************************
RTR_2#show run
!
!
interface FastEthernet0/0
ip address 192.168.77.34 255.255.255.252
!
interface FastEthernet0/1
ip address 192.168.60.65 255.255.255.240
!
interface FastEthernet1/0
ip address 192.168.60.81 255.255.255.240
!
!
router eigrp 22
network 192.168.77.0
network 192.168.60.0
no auto-summary
!
RTR_2#show ip route
192.168.60.0/28 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets
C 192.168.60.80 is directly connected, FastEthernet1/0
C 192.168.60.64 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/1
192.168.77.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets
C 192.168.77.32 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0
**********************************************************
RTR_B#show run
!
interface FastEthernet0/0
ip address 192.168.60.129 255.255.255.240
!
interface FastEthernet0/1
ip address 192.168.60.145 255.255.255.240
!
interface Serial0/1
ip address 192.168.60.26 255.255.255.252
!
router eigrp 212
network 192.168.60.0
!
RTR_B#show ip route
192.168.60.0/24 is variably subnetted, 5 subnets, 2 masks
C 192.168.60.24/30 is directly connected, Serial0/1
C 192.168.60.128/28 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0
C 192.168.60.144/28 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/1
D 192.168.60.96/28 [ 90/21026560 ] via 192.168.60.25, 00:00:57, Serial 0/1
D 192.168.60.112/28 [ 90/21026560 ] via 192.168.60.25, 00:00:57, Serial 0/1192.168.36.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets
D 192.168.36.12 [ 90/21026560 ] via 192.168.60.25, 00:00:57, Serial 0/1
D* 198.0.18.0 [ 90/21026560 ] via 192.168.60.25, 00:00:57, Serial 0/1
**************************************************************************
RTR_1#show run
!
!
interface FastEthernet0/0
ip address 192.168.77.33 255.255.255.252
!
interface Serial1/0ip address 198.0.18.6 255.255.255.0
!
!
interface Serial0/0
ip address 192.168.36.13 255.255.255.252
clockrate 64000
!
interface Serial0/1
ip address 192.168.60.25 255.255.255.252
clockrate 64000
!
!
router eigrp 212
network 192.168.36.0
network 192.168.60.0
network 192.168.85.0
network 198.0.18.0
no auto-summary
!
ip classless
ip default-network 198.0.18.0
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 198.0.18.5
ip http server
RTR_1#show ip route
192.168.36.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets
C 192.168.36.12 is directly connected, Serial 0/0
192.168.60.0/24 is variably subnetted, 5 subnets, 2 masks
C 192.168.60.24/30 is directly connected, Serial0/1
D 192.168.60.128/28 [ 90/21026560 ] via 192.168.60.26, 00:00:57, Serial 0/1
D 192.168.60.144/28 [ 90/21026560 ] via 192.168.60.26, 00:00:57, Serial 0/1
D 192.168.60.96/28 [ 90/21026560 ] via 192.168.36.14, 00:00:57, Serial 0/0
192.168.77.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets
C 192.168.77.32 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0
C 192.0.18.0/24 is directly connected, Serial 1/0*S 0.0.0.0 via 198.0.18.5
Explanation on cheat-test.com:
Step1:
Identify the faults in configuration on RTR_1 and RTR_2. As the SIM specifies all other inter connectivity and internet access for the existing locations of the company are working properly.
Routing Protocols used in the SIM is EIGRP with AS 212 as provided by exhibit.
Faults Identified:
1. Wrong AS (EIGRP 22) provided at RTR_2 (New router)
2. RTR_1 does not advertise the new network between RTR_1 and RTR_2 into EIGRP.
We need to correct the above two configuration mistakes to have full connectivity
Step2: Correcting the EIGRP AS to 212
Wrong AS (EIGRP 22) provided at RTR_2 (New router)
All routers that want to exchange routes within EIGRP needs to be in same Autonomous System.
Step 2.1:
First we need to remove the current wrong EIGRP AS 22 from Router RTR_2
Click on Host-F to get CLI of RTR_2
RTR_2>enable
Password : cisco (Provided by SIM Q )
RTR_2#conf t
RTR_2(conf)#
Step 2.2:
Removing the wrong EIGRP routing process with AS 22
RTR_2(conf)#no router eigrp 22
The above statement removes all the EIGRP configuration configured for AS 22.
Step 2.3:
Adding the correct EIGRP configuration
Start the EIGRP routing process with AS 212
RTR_2(conf)#router eigrp 212
Step 2.4:
Advertise the directly connected networks into EIGRP on RTR_2
Fa 0/0 - 192.168.77.34
Fa 1/0 - 192.168.60.81
Fa 0/1 - 192.168.60.65
RTR_2(config-router)#network 192.168.60.0
RTR_2(config-router)#network 192.168.77.0
RTR_2(config-router)#no auto-summary
RTR_2(config-router)#end
Step 2.5:
Important save the changes made to router RTR_2
RTR_2#copy run start
Step 3:
RTR_1 does not advertise the new network between RTR_1 and RTR_2 into EIGRP.
Click on Host-G to get CLI of RTR_1
The network 192.168.77.0 is used between RTR_1 Fa0/0 - RTR_2 Fa 0/0
This network needs to be advertise into EIGRP routing process at RTR_1
RTR_1>enable
Password : cisco (Provided by SIM Q )
RTR_1#conf t
RTR_1(conf)#
Step 3.1:
Enter EIGRP routing process for AS 212
RTR_1(conf)#router eigrp 212
Step 3.2:
The network 192.168.77.0 is used between RTR_1 Fa0/0 - RTR_2 Fa 0/0 . Advertise this network into EIGRP
RTR_1(config-router)#network 192.168.77.0
RTR_1(config-router)#end
Step 3.3:
Important save the changes made to router RTR_1
RTR_1#copy run start
Cheat-test Verification:
From RTR_2 CLI
ping RTR_1 Serial 1/0 IP address 198.0.18.6
RTR_2#ping 198.0.18.6
!!!!!
A successful ping shows the new RTR_2 will have full connectivity with other routers.
More free questions available here.
Tuesday, September 2, 2008
Quick Notes - TCP / IP
Cheat-test.com Quick Notes - TCP / IP
What are the four layers of the TCP/IP layer model?
The four layers of the TCP/IP layer model are:
Application (process)
Host-to-host (transport)
Internet
Network Access (physical and data link)
What two protocols function at the transport (host-to-host) layer of the TCP/IP model?
The two protocols that function at the host-to-host layer of the TCP/IP model are TCP and UDP. (TCP is a connection-oriented, reliable protocol. UDP is a connectionless and unacknowledged protocol.)
What are the protocol numbers for TCP and UDP?
The protocol number for TCP is 6. The protocol number for UDP is 17.
How many bytes are in the header for TCP and UDP packets?
A TCP header contains 20 bytes, and a UDP header contains 8 bytes.
What are TCP and UDP port numbers?
To pass information (such as e-mail) to upper layers, TCP and UDP use port numbers. These port numbers are used to keep track of different conversations among different hosts at the same time. Originating source port numbers are dynamically assigned by the source host, which is a number greater than 1023.
What is the number range for "well-known" port numbers?
Defined in RFC 1700, the well-known port numbers are 1 to 1023.
What are the steps for the TCP three-way handshake?
The steps for the TCP three-way handshake are as follows:
Step 1. The source host sends a SYN to the destination host.
Step 2. The destination host replies with a SYN/ACK to the source host.
Step 3. The source host replies with an ACK.
What are some protocols that operate at the TCP/IP Internet layer?
Some protocols that operate at the TCP/IP Internet layer are
IP
ICMP
ARP
RARP
What is the Internet Protocol (IP)?
IP is a connectionless protocol that provides best-effort delivery routing of datagrams.
What is the Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)?
ICMP is a management protocol for IP. ICMP messages are carried in IP datagrams and are used to send error and control messages. An example of a utility that uses ICMP is ping.
What is the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)?
ARP is used to resolve a known IP address to a MAC address. In order for a host to communicate with another host, it must know the MAC address of the destination host (if they are on the same network) or next hop router. This is the reason for ARP.
What is the Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP)?
RARP is a protocol used to find the IP address of a station that knows its MAC address. It is mainly used for diskless workstations that boot up and need an IP address. An RARP request is a broadcast packet.
What are the IP address ranges for Class A, Class B, and Class C addresses?
The address ranges are as follows: Class A 1.0.0.0 to 126.0.0.0Class B 128.0.0.0 to 191.255.0.0Class C 192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.0
What does RFC 1918 define?
RFC 1918 defines reserved (private) networks and addresses that are not routed on the Internet. These addresses are 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255, 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255, and 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255. They are used as internal private addresses. Private addresses are widely used today, along with proxy servers and Network Address Translation to assist with "stretching" the current IP address space.
Cisco IOS software supports what three kinds of broadcasts?
The three kinds of broadcasts that Cisco IOS software supports are:
Flooding
Directed broadcast
All-subnet broadcast
Flooded broadcasts are local broadcasts that have an address of 255.255.255.255. They are not propagated by a router.
Direct broadcasts are directed to a specific network. They contain all 1s in the host portion of the address. Routers forward these broadcasts. An example is 192.168.0.255/24.
All-subnet broadcast are broadcast messages to all hosts within a subnet and to all subnets within a network. An example is 192.168.255.255/24. With Cisco IOS release 12.0, a router does not forward all subnet broadcasts. You can use the ip directed-broadcast command to enable all subnet broadcasts.
How do you assign an IP address to a Cisco router?
To assign an IP address to a router, use the ip address address subnet-mask interface configuration command. Here's an example:
RouterB(config)#inter e0
RouterB(config-if)#ip address 172.16.0.1 255.255.0.0
RouterB(config-if)#no shut
Note: By default all interfaces on a Cisco router are administratively disabled. To enable them you must use the "no shut" interface command.
How do you manually assign IP addresses to host names in a Cisco router?
The ip host name [tcp-port-number] address [address] global configuration command lets you assign IP addresses to host names in a Cisco router. [tcp-port-number] is an optional parameter; the default value is Telnet. Here's an example:
RouterB(config)#ip host cisco 172.16.0.1
What Cisco IOS command can you use to program the router to use a DNS server to resolve host names?
The ip name-server server-address [[server-address2]...[server-address6]] command lets you program the Cisco router to resolve host names with a DNS server. Here's an example:
RouterB(config)#ip name-server 172.16.0.250
If you enter a command that a Cisco router does not recognize, the router tries to resolve the command you just entered with a DNS server. How do you turn off this DNS domain lookup?
To turn off DNS domain lookup, use the no ip domain-lookup global command. Here's an example: RouterB#enb
Translating "enb"...domain server (255.255.255.255)% Unknown command or computer name, or unable to find computer address
RouterB#config t
Enter configuration commands, one per line. End with CNTL/Z.
RouterB(config)#no ip domain-lookup
For different VLANs to communicate with each other, they need to be routed (a router!). To perform inter-VLAN routing, what two things must occur?
To perform inter-VLAN routing, the following must occur:
The router must know how to reach all VLANs being interconnected.
The router must have a separate physical connection on the router for each VLAN, or trunking must be enabled on a single physical connection.
How do you enable ISL trunking on a Cisco router?
To enable ISL trunking on a Cisco router, you must do the following:
Step 1 Configure subinterfaces on the router's physical Fast Ethernet or Gigabit interface. (ISL trunking works only on Fast Ethernet or Gigabit interfaces.)
Step 2 Assign an IP address to the subinterface.
Step 3 Enable ISL encapsulation for the particular VLAN with the encapsulate isl vlan# subinterface command.
Here's an example:
RouterB(config)#int f0/0
RouterB(config-subif)#ip address 172.16.0.1 255.255.0.0
RouterB(config-subif)#encapsulation isl 1
QUICK NOTES HOME
What are the four layers of the TCP/IP layer model?
The four layers of the TCP/IP layer model are:
Application (process)
Host-to-host (transport)
Internet
Network Access (physical and data link)
What two protocols function at the transport (host-to-host) layer of the TCP/IP model?
The two protocols that function at the host-to-host layer of the TCP/IP model are TCP and UDP. (TCP is a connection-oriented, reliable protocol. UDP is a connectionless and unacknowledged protocol.)
What are the protocol numbers for TCP and UDP?
The protocol number for TCP is 6. The protocol number for UDP is 17.
How many bytes are in the header for TCP and UDP packets?
A TCP header contains 20 bytes, and a UDP header contains 8 bytes.
What are TCP and UDP port numbers?
To pass information (such as e-mail) to upper layers, TCP and UDP use port numbers. These port numbers are used to keep track of different conversations among different hosts at the same time. Originating source port numbers are dynamically assigned by the source host, which is a number greater than 1023.
What is the number range for "well-known" port numbers?
Defined in RFC 1700, the well-known port numbers are 1 to 1023.
What are the steps for the TCP three-way handshake?
The steps for the TCP three-way handshake are as follows:
Step 1. The source host sends a SYN to the destination host.
Step 2. The destination host replies with a SYN/ACK to the source host.
Step 3. The source host replies with an ACK.
What are some protocols that operate at the TCP/IP Internet layer?
Some protocols that operate at the TCP/IP Internet layer are
IP
ICMP
ARP
RARP
What is the Internet Protocol (IP)?
IP is a connectionless protocol that provides best-effort delivery routing of datagrams.
What is the Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)?
ICMP is a management protocol for IP. ICMP messages are carried in IP datagrams and are used to send error and control messages. An example of a utility that uses ICMP is ping.
What is the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)?
ARP is used to resolve a known IP address to a MAC address. In order for a host to communicate with another host, it must know the MAC address of the destination host (if they are on the same network) or next hop router. This is the reason for ARP.
What is the Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP)?
RARP is a protocol used to find the IP address of a station that knows its MAC address. It is mainly used for diskless workstations that boot up and need an IP address. An RARP request is a broadcast packet.
What are the IP address ranges for Class A, Class B, and Class C addresses?
The address ranges are as follows: Class A 1.0.0.0 to 126.0.0.0Class B 128.0.0.0 to 191.255.0.0Class C 192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.0
What does RFC 1918 define?
RFC 1918 defines reserved (private) networks and addresses that are not routed on the Internet. These addresses are 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255, 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255, and 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255. They are used as internal private addresses. Private addresses are widely used today, along with proxy servers and Network Address Translation to assist with "stretching" the current IP address space.
Cisco IOS software supports what three kinds of broadcasts?
The three kinds of broadcasts that Cisco IOS software supports are:
Flooding
Directed broadcast
All-subnet broadcast
Flooded broadcasts are local broadcasts that have an address of 255.255.255.255. They are not propagated by a router.
Direct broadcasts are directed to a specific network. They contain all 1s in the host portion of the address. Routers forward these broadcasts. An example is 192.168.0.255/24.
All-subnet broadcast are broadcast messages to all hosts within a subnet and to all subnets within a network. An example is 192.168.255.255/24. With Cisco IOS release 12.0, a router does not forward all subnet broadcasts. You can use the ip directed-broadcast command to enable all subnet broadcasts.
How do you assign an IP address to a Cisco router?
To assign an IP address to a router, use the ip address address subnet-mask interface configuration command. Here's an example:
RouterB(config)#inter e0
RouterB(config-if)#ip address 172.16.0.1 255.255.0.0
RouterB(config-if)#no shut
Note: By default all interfaces on a Cisco router are administratively disabled. To enable them you must use the "no shut" interface command.
How do you manually assign IP addresses to host names in a Cisco router?
The ip host name [tcp-port-number] address [address] global configuration command lets you assign IP addresses to host names in a Cisco router. [tcp-port-number] is an optional parameter; the default value is Telnet. Here's an example:
RouterB(config)#ip host cisco 172.16.0.1
What Cisco IOS command can you use to program the router to use a DNS server to resolve host names?
The ip name-server server-address [[server-address2]...[server-address6]] command lets you program the Cisco router to resolve host names with a DNS server. Here's an example:
RouterB(config)#ip name-server 172.16.0.250
If you enter a command that a Cisco router does not recognize, the router tries to resolve the command you just entered with a DNS server. How do you turn off this DNS domain lookup?
To turn off DNS domain lookup, use the no ip domain-lookup global command. Here's an example: RouterB#enb
Translating "enb"...domain server (255.255.255.255)% Unknown command or computer name, or unable to find computer address
RouterB#config t
Enter configuration commands, one per line. End with CNTL/Z.
RouterB(config)#no ip domain-lookup
For different VLANs to communicate with each other, they need to be routed (a router!). To perform inter-VLAN routing, what two things must occur?
To perform inter-VLAN routing, the following must occur:
The router must know how to reach all VLANs being interconnected.
The router must have a separate physical connection on the router for each VLAN, or trunking must be enabled on a single physical connection.
How do you enable ISL trunking on a Cisco router?
To enable ISL trunking on a Cisco router, you must do the following:
Step 1 Configure subinterfaces on the router's physical Fast Ethernet or Gigabit interface. (ISL trunking works only on Fast Ethernet or Gigabit interfaces.)
Step 2 Assign an IP address to the subinterface.
Step 3 Enable ISL encapsulation for the particular VLAN with the encapsulate isl vlan# subinterface command.
Here's an example:
RouterB(config)#int f0/0
RouterB(config-subif)#ip address 172.16.0.1 255.255.0.0
RouterB(config-subif)#encapsulation isl 1
QUICK NOTES HOME
Quick Notes - VLANS
Cheat-test.com Quick Notes - VLANS
What are VLANs?
VLANs are broadcast domains in a Layer 2 network. Each broadcast domain is like a distinct virtual bridge within the switch. Each virtual bridge you create in a switch defines a broadcast domain. By default, traffic from one VLAN cannot pass to another VLAN. Each of the users in a VLAN is also in the same IP subnet, and each switch port can belong to only one VLAN.
What are the three characteristics of a typical VLAN setup?
The three characteristics of a typical VLAN setup are:
Each logical VLAN is like a separate physical bridge.
VLANs can span multiple switches.
Trunks carry traffic for multiple VLANs.
What are trunk links?
By default, each port on a switch can belong to only one VLAN. For devices that are in VLANs (that span multiple switches) to talk to other devices in the same VLAN, you must use trunking or have a dedicated port per VLAN. Trunk links allow the switch to carry multiple VLANs across a single link.
What are the two methods you can use to assign a port to a VLAN?
The two methods to assign a port to a VLAN are
Statically
Dynamically
What is Inter-Switch Link (ISL)?
ISL is a Cisco proprietary protocol used to interconnect switches that have multiple VLANs. It maintains VLAN information as traffic goes between switches, allowing the traffic to enter the correct VLAN. ISL operates in a point-to-point environment.
At which layer of the OSI model does ISL function?
ISL functions at Layer 2 of the OSI model. It encapsulates a data frame with a new ISL header and CRC. Because ISL operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model, it is protocol-independent.
What type of tagging method does ISL use?
Many network professions refer to the way ISL tags frames as an external tagging mechanism. This is because ISL encapsulates each frame and does not modify the original packet.
Many network professions refer to the way ISL tags frames as an external tagging mechanism. This is because ISL encapsulates each frame and does not modify the original packet.
How many extra bytes does ISL add to an existing Ethernet frame?
ISL adds a 26-byte ISL header and a 4-byte CRC to each frame, extending each Ethernet frame by 30 bytes. ISL tagging is implemented in ASICs, so tagging is done at wire speed.
What is VTP?
VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) is a Layer 2 messaging protocol that maintains VLAN configuration consistency throughout a common administrative domain by managing VLANs' additions, deletions, and name changes across multiple switches. Without VTP, you would have to add VLAN information in all switches in your network.
What is a VTP domain?
A VTP domain is one or more interconnected switches that share the same VTP environment. A switch can be in only one VTP domain, and all VLAN information is propagated to all switches in the same VTP domain.
What are the three VTP modes?
The three VTP modes are
Server
Client
Transparent
What is VTP server mode?
A switch in VTP server mode can add, delete, and modify VLANs and other configuration parameters for the entire VTP domain. This is the default mode for all Catalyst switches. VLAN configurations are saved in NVRAM. When you change VLAN configuration in server mode, the change is dynamically propagated to all switches in the VTP domain.
What is VTP client mode?
In VTP client mode, a switch cannot create, delete, or modify VLANs. Also, a VTP client does not save VLAN information and configuration in NVRAM. In client and server mode, VLAN information is synchronized between switches in the VTP domain.
What is VTP transparent mode?
In transparent mode, a switch can add, modify, and delete VLANs. This information is not transmitted to other switches in the VTP domain. They affect only the local switch. VTP transparent mode is used when a switch does not need to participate in the VTP domain but needs to propagate VTP information to other switches.
How often are VTP advertisements flooded throughout the management domain?
VTP advertisements are flooded throughout the management domain every 5 minutes or whenever a change occurs in VLAN configuration.
What is included in VTP advertisements?
VTP advertisements include the following:
VTP revision number
VLAN names and numbers
Information about switches that have ports assigned to each VLAN
What is one of the most important components of the VTP advertisement?
The revision number is one of the most important components of the VTP advertisement. Every time a VTP server modifies its VLAN configuration, it increments the configuration number by 1. The largest configuration number in the VTP domain contains the most current information. When a client receives a revision number higher than its current number, it updates its VLAN configuration.
On a Catalyst 1900 switch, how do you reset the configuration number?
To reset the configuration numbers on a Catalyst 1900, use the delete vtp privileged EXEC command, and then reset the switch.
What is VTP pruning?
By default, a trunk link carries traffic for all VLANs in the VTP domain. Even if a switch does not have any ports in a specific VLAN, traffic for that VLAN is carried across the trunk link. VTP pruning uses VLAN advertisements to determine when a trunk connection is needlessly flooding traffic to the trunk links that the traffic must use to access the appropriate network device.
How many VLANs with a separate spanning tree per VLAN does the Catalyst 1900 support?
The Catalyst 1900 supports 64 VLANs with a separate spanning tree per VLAN.
What VLAN number are CDP and VTP advertisements sent across?
CDP and VTP advertisements are sent on VLAN 1, which is also known as the management VLAN.
What must you remember before you create VLANs on a Catalyst switch?
Before you create VLANs on a Catalyst 1900 switch, the switch must be in VTP server mode or VTP transparent mode.
How do you configure the VTP operation mode on a Catalyst 1900?
To configure VTP on a Catalyst 1900, use the vtp [server transparent client] global configuration command:
Cat1900(config)#vtp server
How do you configure a VTP domain on a Catalyst 1900 switch?
To configure a VTP domain on a Catalyst 1900 switch, use the vtp domain domain-name global command:
Cat1900(config)#vtp domain cisco
How do you configure a VTP domain password on a Catalyst 1900?
Use the vtp password password global command to configure a VTP domain password. This example sets the VTP password to cisco:
Cat1900(config)#vtp password cisco
What does the show vtp privileged EXEC command display?
The show vtp privileged EXEC command displays the following:
VTP version
The number of existing VLANs on a switch and the maximum number of locally supported VLANs
VTP domain name, password, and operating mode
Whether VTP pruning is enabled
The last time VLAN configuration was modified.
Here's an example of show vtp output:
Cat1900#show vtp
VTP version: 1
Configuration revision: 0
Maximum VLANs supported locally: 1005
Number of existing VLANs: 5
VTP domain name : cisco
VTP password : cisco
VTP operating mode : Server
VTP pruning mode : Disabled
VTP traps generation : Enabled
Configuration last modified by: 192.168.0.2 at 00-00-0000 00:00:00
What command do you use to add a VLAN on a Catalyst switch?
To add a VLAN on a Catalyst switch, use the vlan vlan-number [name vlan_name] global command. The following example adds VLAN 10 with a name of Sales: Cat1900(config)#vlan 10 name Sales
What Catalyst 1900 command can you use to verify VLAN information?
To verify VLAN information, use the show vlan vlan-number privileged EXEC command.
How do you view spanning tree information for a particular VLAN?
A Catalyst 1900 switch can have a maximum of 64 VLANs with a separate instance of spanning tree per VLAN. To view spanning tree information for a particular VLAN use the "show spandtree vlan-id" command.
QUICK NOTES HOME
What are VLANs?
VLANs are broadcast domains in a Layer 2 network. Each broadcast domain is like a distinct virtual bridge within the switch. Each virtual bridge you create in a switch defines a broadcast domain. By default, traffic from one VLAN cannot pass to another VLAN. Each of the users in a VLAN is also in the same IP subnet, and each switch port can belong to only one VLAN.
What are the three characteristics of a typical VLAN setup?
The three characteristics of a typical VLAN setup are:
Each logical VLAN is like a separate physical bridge.
VLANs can span multiple switches.
Trunks carry traffic for multiple VLANs.
What are trunk links?
By default, each port on a switch can belong to only one VLAN. For devices that are in VLANs (that span multiple switches) to talk to other devices in the same VLAN, you must use trunking or have a dedicated port per VLAN. Trunk links allow the switch to carry multiple VLANs across a single link.
What are the two methods you can use to assign a port to a VLAN?
The two methods to assign a port to a VLAN are
Statically
Dynamically
What is Inter-Switch Link (ISL)?
ISL is a Cisco proprietary protocol used to interconnect switches that have multiple VLANs. It maintains VLAN information as traffic goes between switches, allowing the traffic to enter the correct VLAN. ISL operates in a point-to-point environment.
At which layer of the OSI model does ISL function?
ISL functions at Layer 2 of the OSI model. It encapsulates a data frame with a new ISL header and CRC. Because ISL operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model, it is protocol-independent.
What type of tagging method does ISL use?
Many network professions refer to the way ISL tags frames as an external tagging mechanism. This is because ISL encapsulates each frame and does not modify the original packet.
Many network professions refer to the way ISL tags frames as an external tagging mechanism. This is because ISL encapsulates each frame and does not modify the original packet.
How many extra bytes does ISL add to an existing Ethernet frame?
ISL adds a 26-byte ISL header and a 4-byte CRC to each frame, extending each Ethernet frame by 30 bytes. ISL tagging is implemented in ASICs, so tagging is done at wire speed.
What is VTP?
VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) is a Layer 2 messaging protocol that maintains VLAN configuration consistency throughout a common administrative domain by managing VLANs' additions, deletions, and name changes across multiple switches. Without VTP, you would have to add VLAN information in all switches in your network.
What is a VTP domain?
A VTP domain is one or more interconnected switches that share the same VTP environment. A switch can be in only one VTP domain, and all VLAN information is propagated to all switches in the same VTP domain.
What are the three VTP modes?
The three VTP modes are
Server
Client
Transparent
What is VTP server mode?
A switch in VTP server mode can add, delete, and modify VLANs and other configuration parameters for the entire VTP domain. This is the default mode for all Catalyst switches. VLAN configurations are saved in NVRAM. When you change VLAN configuration in server mode, the change is dynamically propagated to all switches in the VTP domain.
What is VTP client mode?
In VTP client mode, a switch cannot create, delete, or modify VLANs. Also, a VTP client does not save VLAN information and configuration in NVRAM. In client and server mode, VLAN information is synchronized between switches in the VTP domain.
What is VTP transparent mode?
In transparent mode, a switch can add, modify, and delete VLANs. This information is not transmitted to other switches in the VTP domain. They affect only the local switch. VTP transparent mode is used when a switch does not need to participate in the VTP domain but needs to propagate VTP information to other switches.
How often are VTP advertisements flooded throughout the management domain?
VTP advertisements are flooded throughout the management domain every 5 minutes or whenever a change occurs in VLAN configuration.
What is included in VTP advertisements?
VTP advertisements include the following:
VTP revision number
VLAN names and numbers
Information about switches that have ports assigned to each VLAN
What is one of the most important components of the VTP advertisement?
The revision number is one of the most important components of the VTP advertisement. Every time a VTP server modifies its VLAN configuration, it increments the configuration number by 1. The largest configuration number in the VTP domain contains the most current information. When a client receives a revision number higher than its current number, it updates its VLAN configuration.
On a Catalyst 1900 switch, how do you reset the configuration number?
To reset the configuration numbers on a Catalyst 1900, use the delete vtp privileged EXEC command, and then reset the switch.
What is VTP pruning?
By default, a trunk link carries traffic for all VLANs in the VTP domain. Even if a switch does not have any ports in a specific VLAN, traffic for that VLAN is carried across the trunk link. VTP pruning uses VLAN advertisements to determine when a trunk connection is needlessly flooding traffic to the trunk links that the traffic must use to access the appropriate network device.
How many VLANs with a separate spanning tree per VLAN does the Catalyst 1900 support?
The Catalyst 1900 supports 64 VLANs with a separate spanning tree per VLAN.
What VLAN number are CDP and VTP advertisements sent across?
CDP and VTP advertisements are sent on VLAN 1, which is also known as the management VLAN.
What must you remember before you create VLANs on a Catalyst switch?
Before you create VLANs on a Catalyst 1900 switch, the switch must be in VTP server mode or VTP transparent mode.
How do you configure the VTP operation mode on a Catalyst 1900?
To configure VTP on a Catalyst 1900, use the vtp [server transparent client] global configuration command:
Cat1900(config)#vtp server
How do you configure a VTP domain on a Catalyst 1900 switch?
To configure a VTP domain on a Catalyst 1900 switch, use the vtp domain domain-name global command:
Cat1900(config)#vtp domain cisco
How do you configure a VTP domain password on a Catalyst 1900?
Use the vtp password password global command to configure a VTP domain password. This example sets the VTP password to cisco:
Cat1900(config)#vtp password cisco
What does the show vtp privileged EXEC command display?
The show vtp privileged EXEC command displays the following:
VTP version
The number of existing VLANs on a switch and the maximum number of locally supported VLANs
VTP domain name, password, and operating mode
Whether VTP pruning is enabled
The last time VLAN configuration was modified.
Here's an example of show vtp output:
Cat1900#show vtp
VTP version: 1
Configuration revision: 0
Maximum VLANs supported locally: 1005
Number of existing VLANs: 5
VTP domain name : cisco
VTP password : cisco
VTP operating mode : Server
VTP pruning mode : Disabled
VTP traps generation : Enabled
Configuration last modified by: 192.168.0.2 at 00-00-0000 00:00:00
What command do you use to add a VLAN on a Catalyst switch?
To add a VLAN on a Catalyst switch, use the vlan vlan-number [name vlan_name] global command. The following example adds VLAN 10 with a name of Sales: Cat1900(config)#vlan 10 name Sales
What Catalyst 1900 command can you use to verify VLAN information?
To verify VLAN information, use the show vlan vlan-number privileged EXEC command.
How do you view spanning tree information for a particular VLAN?
A Catalyst 1900 switch can have a maximum of 64 VLANs with a separate instance of spanning tree per VLAN. To view spanning tree information for a particular VLAN use the "show spandtree vlan-id" command.
QUICK NOTES HOME
Quick Notes - ISDN
Cheat-test.com Quick Notes - ISDN
In ISDN, what do E-series protocols specify?
E-series protocols specify telephone network standards for ISDN. Examples include International ISDN addressing and the International Telephone plan.
What do protocols that begin with I deal with?
I-series protocols deal with concepts, terminology, and general methods of ISDN, such as service aspects, user network interfaces, and network aspects.
What do ISDN protocols that begin with Q specify?
Q-series protocols specify how switching and signaling (call setup) should operate. For example, ISDN protocol Q.921 is used for LAPD on the D channel, and protocol Q.931 is used for the ISDN network layer between the terminal and switch.
What is the data transfer speed for ISDN BRI?
The data transfer rate for ISDN BRI is 128 Kbps. The total transfer rate for ISDN BRI is 144 Kbps. This consists of two 64 Kbps (128 Kbps) Bearer (B) channels plus one 16 Kbps Delta (D) channel. The B channels can be used for data transfer and voice transmission. The D channel carries control and signaling information for fast call setup and operates at the first three layers of the OSI model.
What is the total rate in Mbps for ISDN PRI?
The total rate for ISDN PRI in the U.S. and Japan is 1.544 Mbps. PRI consists of 23 64 Kbps B channels and one 64 Kbps D channel. In Europe, PRI consists of 30 B channels and one D channel for a total rate of 2.048 Mbps.
In ISDN, the D channel appears to always be up and is what makes the call to the ISDN switch.
What signaling protocol does the ISDN switch use to set up a path and pass the called number to the terminating ISDN switch?
The ISDN local switch uses the SS7 protocol to set up a path and pass the called number to the terminating ISDN switch.
Devices connecting to an ISDN network are known as terminal equipment (TE) and network termination (NT) equipment. What do the TE1 and TE2 equipment types refer to?
TE1 refers to a device that has a native ISDN interface. That is, it can plug directly into an ISDN network. TE2 refers to equipment that does not have an ISDN interface and that requires a terminal adapter (TA) to plug into an ISDN network.
To what do ISDN NT1 and NT2 termination types refer?
Network Terminal 1 converts BRI signals into a form used by the ISDN line. It implements the physical layer specifications and connects the devices to the ISDN network. NT2 is the point where all ISDN lines are aggregated and switched using a customer-switching device.
What is the function of the TA?
The terminal adapter converts non-ISDN signals into ISDN signals. Devices that are not native to ISDN connect to a TA to access the ISDN network.
What does the ISDN R reference point define?
The R reference point defines the point between a non-ISDN-compatible device and a TA.
What does the ISDN S point reference?
The S point references the points or customer equipment that connects to the NT2 or customer-switching device.
What does the ISDN T reference point define?
ISDN T reference points refer to the point between NT1 and NT2 devices. T and S reference points are electronically the same and reference the outbound connection from the NT2 to the ISDN network.
What is the ISDN U reference point?
The U reference point is the point between the NT1 and the ISDN network.
What happens when you connect a router with a U interface into an NT1?
If you connect a router with a U interface into an NT1, you will damage the interface. This is because the U interface on a Cisco router already has a built-in NT1.
What are SPIDs?
Service provider or profile identifiers (SPIDs) are used to identify your router to the switch at the central office (the ISP). They are a series of characters that look like phone numbers and are not always required.
How do you enable ISDN on a Cisco router?
To enable ISDN on a Cisco router, first you need to define the switch type your router will be connecting to. The switch type is the type of switch used by your service provider. To define the ISDN switch type, enter the isdn switch-type switch-type global or interface command. Specifying the isdn switch-type global command specifies the ISDN switch type for the entire router. The second step is to enter the SPIDs provided by your service provider by entering the isdn spid1 spid-number and isdn spid2 spid-number interface commands. The following example enables ISDN on a router, specifying AT&T basic-rate switches as the switch type:
RouterA(config-if)#isdn switch-type basic-5ess
RouterA(config-if)#isdn spid1 123456789123
RouterA(config-if)#isdn spid2 123456789124
If you have DDR enabled on your router, when does the router decide when to bring up the ISDN line and send traffic?
If DDR is enabled on your router, it brings up the ISDN line when it sees "interesting traffic".
How do you enable DDR on a Cisco router?
To enable DDR on a Cisco router, you first need to define static routes with the ip route command. Next, specify interesting traffic, and finally, configure the dialer information.
How do you specify interesting traffic?
As an administrator, you define that interesting traffic can be based on protocol type or addresses for source or destination hosts. To define interesting traffic, use the following command: dialer-list dialer-group protocol protocol-name {permit deny list access-list-number}
dialer-group is the number that identifies the dialer list. protocol-name can be IP, IPX, AppleTalk, DECnet, or Vines.
RouterA(config)#dialer-list 10 protocol ip list 100
RouterA(config)#access-list 100 permit tcy any any eq www
RouterA(config)#access-list 100 permit tcy any any eq smtp
RouterA(config)#access-list 100 permit tcy any any eq dns
The last step in configuring DDR on a Cisco router is to configure the dialer information. How do you do this?
Do the following to configure the dialer information:
Step 1. Choose the interface.
Step 2. Configure an IP address on the interface.
Step 3. Configure the encapsulation type.
Step 4. Bind interesting traffic to the interface by using the dialer-group group-number interface command.
What command can you use to view the call in progress?
The show isdn active command shows the call in progress and the number dialed:
show isdn st
RouterA#Global ISDN Switchtype = basic-5ess
ISDN BRI0 interface dsl 0, interface ISDN Switchtype = basic-5ess
Layer 1 Status:
ACTIVE
Layer 2 Status: TEI = 64, Ces = 1, SAPI = 0, State =
MULTIPLE_FRAME_ESTABLISHED
Layer 3 Status: 0 Active Layer 3 Call(s) Activated dsl 0 CCBs = 0
The Free Channel Mask: 0x80000003
Total Allocated ISDN CCBs = 0
How can you view the number of times the dial string has been successfully reached on a Cisco router?
The show dialer command displays information about the interface configured for DDR, the number of times the dialer string has been successfully reached, and the fast and idle timer values for each B channel.
QUICK NOTES HOME
In ISDN, what do E-series protocols specify?
E-series protocols specify telephone network standards for ISDN. Examples include International ISDN addressing and the International Telephone plan.
What do protocols that begin with I deal with?
I-series protocols deal with concepts, terminology, and general methods of ISDN, such as service aspects, user network interfaces, and network aspects.
What do ISDN protocols that begin with Q specify?
Q-series protocols specify how switching and signaling (call setup) should operate. For example, ISDN protocol Q.921 is used for LAPD on the D channel, and protocol Q.931 is used for the ISDN network layer between the terminal and switch.
What is the data transfer speed for ISDN BRI?
The data transfer rate for ISDN BRI is 128 Kbps. The total transfer rate for ISDN BRI is 144 Kbps. This consists of two 64 Kbps (128 Kbps) Bearer (B) channels plus one 16 Kbps Delta (D) channel. The B channels can be used for data transfer and voice transmission. The D channel carries control and signaling information for fast call setup and operates at the first three layers of the OSI model.
What is the total rate in Mbps for ISDN PRI?
The total rate for ISDN PRI in the U.S. and Japan is 1.544 Mbps. PRI consists of 23 64 Kbps B channels and one 64 Kbps D channel. In Europe, PRI consists of 30 B channels and one D channel for a total rate of 2.048 Mbps.
In ISDN, the D channel appears to always be up and is what makes the call to the ISDN switch.
What signaling protocol does the ISDN switch use to set up a path and pass the called number to the terminating ISDN switch?
The ISDN local switch uses the SS7 protocol to set up a path and pass the called number to the terminating ISDN switch.
Devices connecting to an ISDN network are known as terminal equipment (TE) and network termination (NT) equipment. What do the TE1 and TE2 equipment types refer to?
TE1 refers to a device that has a native ISDN interface. That is, it can plug directly into an ISDN network. TE2 refers to equipment that does not have an ISDN interface and that requires a terminal adapter (TA) to plug into an ISDN network.
To what do ISDN NT1 and NT2 termination types refer?
Network Terminal 1 converts BRI signals into a form used by the ISDN line. It implements the physical layer specifications and connects the devices to the ISDN network. NT2 is the point where all ISDN lines are aggregated and switched using a customer-switching device.
What is the function of the TA?
The terminal adapter converts non-ISDN signals into ISDN signals. Devices that are not native to ISDN connect to a TA to access the ISDN network.
What does the ISDN R reference point define?
The R reference point defines the point between a non-ISDN-compatible device and a TA.
What does the ISDN S point reference?
The S point references the points or customer equipment that connects to the NT2 or customer-switching device.
What does the ISDN T reference point define?
ISDN T reference points refer to the point between NT1 and NT2 devices. T and S reference points are electronically the same and reference the outbound connection from the NT2 to the ISDN network.
What is the ISDN U reference point?
The U reference point is the point between the NT1 and the ISDN network.
What happens when you connect a router with a U interface into an NT1?
If you connect a router with a U interface into an NT1, you will damage the interface. This is because the U interface on a Cisco router already has a built-in NT1.
What are SPIDs?
Service provider or profile identifiers (SPIDs) are used to identify your router to the switch at the central office (the ISP). They are a series of characters that look like phone numbers and are not always required.
How do you enable ISDN on a Cisco router?
To enable ISDN on a Cisco router, first you need to define the switch type your router will be connecting to. The switch type is the type of switch used by your service provider. To define the ISDN switch type, enter the isdn switch-type switch-type global or interface command. Specifying the isdn switch-type global command specifies the ISDN switch type for the entire router. The second step is to enter the SPIDs provided by your service provider by entering the isdn spid1 spid-number and isdn spid2 spid-number interface commands. The following example enables ISDN on a router, specifying AT&T basic-rate switches as the switch type:
RouterA(config-if)#isdn switch-type basic-5ess
RouterA(config-if)#isdn spid1 123456789123
RouterA(config-if)#isdn spid2 123456789124
If you have DDR enabled on your router, when does the router decide when to bring up the ISDN line and send traffic?
If DDR is enabled on your router, it brings up the ISDN line when it sees "interesting traffic".
How do you enable DDR on a Cisco router?
To enable DDR on a Cisco router, you first need to define static routes with the ip route command. Next, specify interesting traffic, and finally, configure the dialer information.
How do you specify interesting traffic?
As an administrator, you define that interesting traffic can be based on protocol type or addresses for source or destination hosts. To define interesting traffic, use the following command: dialer-list dialer-group protocol protocol-name {permit deny list access-list-number}
dialer-group is the number that identifies the dialer list. protocol-name can be IP, IPX, AppleTalk, DECnet, or Vines.
RouterA(config)#dialer-list 10 protocol ip list 100
RouterA(config)#access-list 100 permit tcy any any eq www
RouterA(config)#access-list 100 permit tcy any any eq smtp
RouterA(config)#access-list 100 permit tcy any any eq dns
The last step in configuring DDR on a Cisco router is to configure the dialer information. How do you do this?
Do the following to configure the dialer information:
Step 1. Choose the interface.
Step 2. Configure an IP address on the interface.
Step 3. Configure the encapsulation type.
Step 4. Bind interesting traffic to the interface by using the dialer-group group-number interface command.
What command can you use to view the call in progress?
The show isdn active command shows the call in progress and the number dialed:
show isdn st
RouterA#Global ISDN Switchtype = basic-5ess
ISDN BRI0 interface dsl 0, interface ISDN Switchtype = basic-5ess
Layer 1 Status:
ACTIVE
Layer 2 Status: TEI = 64, Ces = 1, SAPI = 0, State =
MULTIPLE_FRAME_ESTABLISHED
Layer 3 Status: 0 Active Layer 3 Call(s) Activated dsl 0 CCBs = 0
The Free Channel Mask: 0x80000003
Total Allocated ISDN CCBs = 0
How can you view the number of times the dial string has been successfully reached on a Cisco router?
The show dialer command displays information about the interface configured for DDR, the number of times the dialer string has been successfully reached, and the fast and idle timer values for each B channel.
QUICK NOTES HOME
Subscribe to:
Posts (Atom)
