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(350-030) Cisco Voice

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Free 350-030 Sample Questions:

1. Which of the following statements outline the correct way to implement a non­standard softkey template?
A. Select a softkey template; copy the template and rename it; insert it; modify the template and update the changes.
B. Select a softkey template; rename it; modify it and update the changes.
C. Select the default softkey template, rename it; insert it; modify it and update the changes.
D. Select add softkey template, name it; update it; modify the template and update the changes.
Answer: A

2. Which port(s) must be opened on an IOS firewall to allow successful MGCP (Media Gateway Control Protocol) message exchanges between a CallManager and an IOS MGCP PRI gateway?
A. TCP 2000 and TCP 2002
B. TCP 2427 and UDP 2428
C. UDP 2427
D. UDP 2427 and UDP 2428
E. UDP 2427 and TCP 2428
Answer: E

3. There are 2 remote sites and one main site. Each site has a CME router with many IP phones in an IPT deployment. The Network Administrator wants to provide all of the phones voicemail access using CUE. Which way can CUE be deployed?
A. Cisco Unity Express and the CME gateway at each site must be collocated in the same router chassis providing voicemail access to local IP phones registered to local CME.
B. One Cisco Unity Express can be used at the main site with CME router providing voicemail access to all the 3 sites.
C. One Cisco Unity Express with CME can be used at the main site to provide voicemail access to the IP phones at the main site. Another Cisco Unity Express with CME can be used at one of the remote sites to provide voicemail access for all of the IP phones at the two remote sites.
D. Cisco Unity Express and the CME gateway at each site may NOT be collocated in the same router chassis providing a voicemail access to local IP phones registered to local CME.
Answer: A

4. Which of the following are NOT true statements about Certificate Trust List (CTL) File? (Choose 2)
A. It is a list of devices and credentials that a phone should trust on the network.
B. The CTL file is signed by administrator workstation password.
C. It contains identity, public key and role information.
D. Phones need to trust all entries in the CTL file which could be CCM, TFTP, CAPF, etc. E.The CTL file is loaded to the phone each time when authentication is required.
F. The CTL is created by CTL Client on administrator workstation.
Answer: B, E

5. A CallManager Group can provide which two features to your call processing system? (Choose 2)
A. Support for SRST in remote offices
B. Enables you to distribute the control of devices across multiple Cisco CallManagers
C. Enables you to distribute voice mail support across multiple Unity servers
D. Support for redundancy by enabling you to designate a primary and backup Cisco CallManagers for each group
E. Support for control of IPMA across primary and backup Cisco CallManagers for each group
Answer: B, D

6. When comparing SIP, H.323, and MGCP, and SCCP in a VoIP deployment, which Protocol will satisfy the following requirements: Requirement 1: It has a mechanism for a centralized dial­plan Requirement 2: The endpoints are considered to be unintelligent Requirement 3: The protocol must be text­based
A. SIP
B. H.323
C. MGCP
D. SCCP
Answer: C

7. Which 2 are NOT functions performed by Cisco Media Streaming App Service?
A. Provides SCCP stack for 4 software devices: ANN, CFB, MOH, and MTP
B. Supports DB change notification processing
C. Converts new MOH source files to separate WAV files for MOH codecs
D. Provides SDI trace, event logs, and Perfmon counters
E. Adjusts volume levels of MOH source files
F. Provides audio data from WAV files: ANN, MOH
Answer: C, E

8. An IP phone is connected to a Cisco inline power switch Port. Switch is running IOS image on it. The switch port is acting as a trunk and is running both Voice and Data VLAN configuration on it. We would like the IP Phone connected to switch port in voice VLAN to set layer 2 priority of all the packets coming from PC to default 0. Which IOS CLI in Interface Port configuration on Inline power switch can help us achieve our objective?
A. switchport access priority extend cos 0
B. switchport priority extend cos 0
C. switchport trunk priority cos 0
D. switchport mode access priority extend cos 0
E. mls qos priority extend cos 0
F. switchport access extend cos 0
Answer: B

9. A company has a headquarters with a centralized CallManager and 5 remote offices. All the remote offices have extensions in the range of 1000­1150. To allow inter­office calls each office has been assigned a 3 digit site code. To call between sites, users will dial an access code followed by the 3 digit site code and the extension. Which of the following describes how these inter­office access codes should be configured?
A. A translation pattern is created for each office and placed in a partition available to all phones. The translation pattern strips the access code and site code and is assigned a Calling Search Space that includes only the phones located in the office.
B. A translation pattern is created for each office and is placed in a partition available to the phones at that
office. The translation pattern strips the access code and site code and is assigned to Calling Search Space that includes all local phones.
C. A route pattern is created for each office and placed in a partition available to all phones. The route pattern strips the access code and the site code and routes the call to the remote office's gateway.
D. A route pattern is created for each office and placed in a partition available to phones at that office. The route pattern strips the access code and site code and routes the call to the remote office's gateway.
Answer: B

10. Which type of media resources would be required for a single site call processing model?
A. MTP
B. Locations
C. Regions
D. Transcoders
Answer: A

11. Which method could be used to determine if there is a JTAPI memory leak in a CallManager server?
A. Look at the physical memory available of the server.
B. Review all CCM User logs
C. Check for changes to IP phone settings, like ring settings reverting to default values
D. Determine if dialing the voice mail pilot number fails to connect to voice mail
E. Check for an increasing number of fast busys when dialing to the PSTN
Answer: A

12. Which statement does NOT describe dialing domain functionality in Cisco Unity?
A. Dialing domains are multiple Unity servers that are handling subscribers that are on a single switch or networked switch
B. All users in the dialing domain should be able to pick up their phones and dial each other directly without having to dial trunk access codes or use outside lines.
C. Dialing domains are also necessary if the Unity servers involved don't have overlapping dial plans.
D. Dialing domain IDs are stored on the primary location object. Multiple primary location objects with the same value for this ID make up a dialing domain.
E. All delivery locations get the same dialing domain ID as the primary location of the box they are created on.
Answer: C

13. Two divisions in your company need to exchange Unity voice messages using VPIM. Calls from Division A to Division B are made using a site code of "919" followed by the recipient's 4 digit extension. The primary extension in Unity is the user's four digit extension. Which of the following configurations on Division A's Unity server will allow messages to be forwarded between Unity systems using the same seven digit dialing that is used to place direct calls? (Choose 3)
A. Add the seven digit number as an alternate extension to each VPIM subscriber
B. Configure the Extension on the VPIM subscriber to "919" plus the recipient's four digit extension
C. Configure the Remote Mailbox Number on the VPIM subscriber to the recipient's four digit extension
D. Configure the Remote Phone Prefix to "919"
E. Configure the Dial ID to "919"
Answer: B, C, E

14. When configuring IP Manager Assistant (IPMA) in a shared line mode, how are the manager and assistant Directory Numbers (DN) configured?
A. The manager and assistant both share the same directory number (DN).
B. The manager and assistant have separate directory numbers (DN), but share an IPMA directory number.
C. The manager and assistant each have separate directory numbers (DN).
D. The manager and assistant share a directory number (DN) and an IP Manager Assistant (IPMA) directory number.
Answer: A

15. What occurs if the system clocks are not synchronized between the sender and receiver of an RTP stream?
A. Packets can be placed in sequence but jitter cannot be compensated for.
B. Packets cannot be reordered for sequence and jitter cannot be compensated for.
C. Jitter can be compensated for, but packets cannot be reordered if they arrive out of sequence.
D. Packets may be reordered and jitter may be compensated for as the timestamp is not related to the system time.
E. When the RTP stream is opened, the sender and receiver synchronize their clocks before the stream commences so that packet sequencing and dejitter will function correctly.
Answer: D

16. Which 3 functions are NOT performed by a Route Pattern? (Choose 3)
A. Points to the actual IP phone
B. Matches dialed number for external calls
C. Performs digit manipulation
D. Points to a route list for routing
E. Chooses path for call routing
F. Points to prioritized route groups
nswer: A, E, F

17. Which one of the following does NOT state Multicast Technologies Advantages?
A. Enhanced Efficiency: controls network traffic and reduces server and CPU loads
B. Optimized Performance: eliminates traffic redundancy
C. Distributed Applications: makes multipoint applications possible
D. Bandwidth­conserving technology that reduces traffic by simultaneously delivering a single stream of information to thousands of corporate recipients and homes
E. Prevent Denial of service (DoS) attacks in the networks
Answer: E

18. Why can't TCP be used for transferring audio and video over UDP? (Choose 5)
A. TCP does not have a mechanism for sufficiently long buffering and adequate average throughput.
B. Reliable transmission is inappropriate for delay­sensitive data such as real­time audio and video.
C. TCP cannot support multicast.
D. The TCP congestion control mechanisms decreases the congestion window when packet losses are detected ("slow start").
E. TCP headers are larger than a UDP header.
F. TCP does not contain the necessary timestamp and encoding information needed by the receiving application.
Answer: B, C, D, E, F

19. The IOS command "call rsvp­sync resv­timer 10" is used to set the timer on the:
A. Originating VoIP gateway for completing RSVP reservation setups within 10 seconds
B. Originating and terminating VoIP gateway for completing RSVP reservation setups within 10 seconds
C. Terminating VoIP gateway for completing RSVP reservation setups within 10 seconds
D. VoIP gatekeeper for completing RSVP reservation setups within 10 seconds
Answer: C

20. Calculate the percentage of overall bandwidth saved (at Layer 3) by cRTP for a G.729 VoIP call packetized at 50 pps.
A. Approximately 60%
B. Approximately 50%
C. Approximately 40%
D. Approximately 30%
E. Approximately 20%
Answer: A

21. Refer to the exhibit. While debugging a problem on SIP network, one of the messages displayed when the debug ccsip messages command is entered is shown in the exhibit. What information will the server return to the caller?

A. The acceptable media type
B. A list of acceptable media types
C. A list of acceptable formats
D. A correct directory number
E. An acceptable language code
Answer: C

22. Refer to the exhibit. Two ports on a 3600 gateway platform are stuck in the EM_PARK state.
What workaround can be configured on the router to help alleviate this situation?

A. Fake Answer
B. A GetDigit Timeout value
C. A call park watchdog timer
D. Configure the interface for wink­start signaling
Answer: A

23. Based upon your understanding of an SCCP 7960 IP phone bootup sequence, what must be true for the CallManager to send the IP phone an SEPDefault.cnf file instead of an SEP (mac address) file? (Choose 3)
A. The IP phone must request SEPDefault.cnf file explictly.
B. Auto Registration must be enabled.
C. The IP phone must be configured in the "default" partition.
D. The IP phone should not have previously registered with this CallManager cluster. E.The IP phone must have previously registered, but the IP Phone was power cycled.
Answer: A, B, D

24. Two type of RSVP reservation types are:
A. Distinct and Shared
B. Same and Distinct
C. Shared and non­shared
D. Reservation and Path
Answer: A

25. A CME site has a group of attendants that answer calls for 3 different companies. The dial­plan for the CME site is listed below. CompanyA: 4085551111 CompanyB: 4085552222 CompanyC: 4085553333 Attendant
A: 100 Attendant
B: 101 Attendant
C: 102 Identify the configuration that will meet the following criteria:
1. Incoming DNIS call to company A, B or C's dial­in number will hunt to the attendant that has been idle the longest.
2. The name of the company that was called should appear on the phone display. 3. Attendants can logout so that calls to Company A, B or C will bypass their phone.
A. telephony­service directory entry 1 4085551111 name CompanyA directory entry 2 4085552222 name CompanyB directory entry 3 4085553333 name CompanyC service dnis dir­lookup ephone­hunt 1 longest­idle pilot 105 secondary 408555.... list 100,101,102 preference 1 timeout 5
B. telephony­service directory entry 1 4085551111 name CompanyA directory entry 2 4085552222 name
CompanyB directory entry 3 4085553333 name CompanyC service dnis dir­lookup ephone­hunt 1
longest­idle pilot 408555.... list 100,101,102 preference 1 timeout 5
C. ephone­dn 1 number 100 secondary 408555.... name CompanyA preference 1 no huntstop ! ephone­dn 2 number 101 secondary 408555.... name CompanyB preference 2 no huntstop ! ephone­dn 3 name CompanyA number 102 secondary 408555.... preference 2 no huntstop
D. ephone­dn 1 number 408555.... name CompanyA preference 1 no huntstop ! ephone­dn 2 number 408555.... name CompanyB preference 2 no huntstop ! ephone­dn 3 name CompanyC number 408555.... preference 3 no huntstop
E. telephony­service directory entry 1 4085551111 name CompanyA directory entry 2 4085552222 name
CompanyB directory entry 3 4085553333 name CompanyC service dnis dir­lookup ephone­dn 1 number 100 secondary 4085551111 preference 1 no huntstop ! ephone­dn 2 number 101 secondary 4085552222 preference 2 no huntstop ! ephone­dn 3 number 102 secondary 4085553333 preference 2 no huntstop Answer: A

26. A software media termination point should be deployed to support which call processing models and services?
A. To support remote sites for multi­site distributed call processing models and H.323v1.
B. To support remote sites in a centralized call processing model and H.323v1.
C. To support single site call processing models and H.323v1.
D. To support IP Telephony Service Providers and H.323v1.
Answer: C

27. Which of the following are mandatory sub­commands under call­manager­fallback and will help an IP Phone register to an IOS router in SRST mode? (Choose 3)
A. access­code
B. dialplan­pattern
C. ip source­address
D. keepalive
E. max­dn
F. max­ephones
Answer: C, E, F

28. Consider the exhibit. A call placed from extension 2000 to extension 2001 is forwarded to voicemail. Instead of the greeting for 2001, the default greeting is heard. The caller is able to select extension 2001 from the voicemail AA and leave a message. From the SMDI trace, what is the most likely cause of this problem?

A. The 'External Phone Number Mask' for extension 2001 is not set correctly.
B. The 'OutputExternalFormat' parameter is not set correctly.
C. The 'OutputDnFormat' parameter is not set correctly.
D. The 'InputDnSignificantDigits' parameter is not set correctly.
E. The LTN does not match the port the call is forwarded on.
Answer: E

29. Which would be situations where configuring and using a DNS server would be advisable in an IP telephony network. (Choose 2)
A. If Network Address Translation (NAT) is required for communication between the IP phones and Cisco CallManager.
B. DNS names resolution is required within the cluster deployed in a single site.
C. DNS names resolution is required for Multi­Site WAN Deployments with Centralized Call Processing.
D. DNS names resolution is required for Multi­Site WAN Deployments with Distributed Call Processing.
E. IP telephony disaster recovery network configurations.
F. The size of the DNS response exceeds 1500 bytes, so only the first 1500 bytes are returned by the DNS server.
G. The MTU size in the network is longer than the bandwidth will allow.
Answer: A, E

30. Consider the exhibit. On which two of the links (labeled A through F) would SCCP be used as the protocol? (Choose 2)

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
F. F
Answer: B, F

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350-030 Cisco Voice

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A. provides encryption between a browser and a web server
B. provides web server content filtering is bundled in the SPS platform
C. provides content filtering for e-mail blocks 97% of SPAM
D. protects from spyware and phishing attacks
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2. The Cisco Smart Foundation Service is entry-level technical support service that provides the support that small businesses need to help them maintain network reliability and minimize disruption to business. Which three features are discovered in a target customer for Cisco Smart Foundation services? (Choose three.)
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B. SMARTnet Partner Service
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D. Cisco SMARTnet for SBCS
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Answer: C

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A. wireless connectivity
B. call forwarding
C. device discovery
D. call routing configuration
Answer: C, D

8. Cisco Smart Care Service provides comprehensive network care and improvement for small and medium-sized businesses. Which of the following options is correct about the features provided by Cisco Smart Care Service?
A. fee-based add-on support and tech-to-tech assistance for Cisco products
B. bundled, unlimited support with the purchase of any Cisco product
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A. Steps to Success
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C. Partner Central
D. Unified Communications for SMB
Answer: C

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A. want to provide employee wireless access
B. need between two and three access points
C. need more than four access points
D. want to provide guest wireless access
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C. Cisco Catalyst 4500 and 7200 ISR Routers
D. Cisco Catalyst 6500 and 7200 ISR Routers
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650-251	LCSAUC Cisco Lifecycle Services Advanced IP Communications	$79.00
650-393	LCSE Cisco Lifecycle Services Express	$79.00
650-575	LCSAS Cisco Lifecycle Services Advanced Security	$79.00
650-621	LCSAWALAN Cisco Lifecycle Services Advanced Wireless	$79.00

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Free 642-181 Sample Questions:

1. Cisco Unified Presence works with which two Cisco Unified Communications Manager versions? (Choose two.)
A. 3.x
B. 4.x
C. 5.x
D. 6.x
Answer: C, D

2. When migrating from Cisco Unified Communications Manager Release 5.x to Release 6.x, what is the fastest way to assign line appearances to users?
A. Manually edit each user account from a line-based user to a line-appearance-based user.
B. Use Cisco Unified Communications Manager BAT to migrate users from line-based users to line-appearance-based users.
C. Delete and reprovision users to have line-appearance mappings.
D. The upgrade automatically handles the migration from line-based user to line-appearance-based user.
Answer: B

3. A Cisco Unified Presence Solution integrated with Microsoft is being deployed. Which component is optional?
A. Microsoft Office Communicator
B. Microsoft Exchange 2003
C. 2007
D. Microsoft Office Communications Server
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager server
F. Cisco Unified Presence server
Answer: B

4. Which option is a peripheral component of Cisco Unified Presence?
A. sync agent
B. profile agent
C. SIP presence engine
D. SIP proxy
Answer: B

5. The phone status of a user is not updating automatically during use. What is the most likely problem?
A. The user is not associated with a line appearance.
B. The user is not logged in to Cisco Unified Personal Communicator.
C. SUBSCRIBE calling search space on the SIP trunk to Cisco Unified Presence is set incorrectly.
D. The Rerouting and Out-of-Dialog Refer settings are incorrectly set to Default.
Answer: C

6. A Cisco Unified Communications solution is being deployed as follows:
includes Cisco Unified Presence
integrates with Microsoft Office Communications Server
used for remote call control of Cisco Unified IP phones
What must be taken into consideration for scalability?
A. the hardware platform being used by Cisco Unified Presence
B. the hardware platform being used by Cisco Unified Communications
C. the type of Cisco Unified IP Phone being controlled
D. the version of Microsoft Office Communicator
Answer: B

7. Which Cisco Unified Personal Communicator file will be least helpful in troubleshooting?
A. UnifiedClientInstall.log
B. CiscoUnifiedPersonalCommunicatorHelpMenu.txt
C. SystemInfo.txt
D. UnifiedClientLog4CXX.txt
Answer: B

8. Which software components are unsupported in Cisco Unified Presence Release 6.0.1?
A. Cisco Unified Communication Manager Release 6.0 and Cisco Unified Personal Communicator Release 1.2
B. Cisco Unified Communication Manager Release 5.1 and Microsoft Active Directory
C. Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Express 2.0 and Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Express VT Release 1.2
D. Cisco Unity 5.0 (for Microsoft Exchange 2003 and 2007)
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager 4.x
Answer: E

9. Microsoft Office Communicator is being integrated with a Cisco Unified IP Phone for remote call control. What is the purpose of the Cisco Unified Presence server?
A. SIP/SIMPLE control of the Cisco Unified IP Phone
B. presence federation between Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Microsoft Office Communications Server
C. Cisco Unified Presence is not used in this integration
D. converting CSTA (ECMA TR-87) messaging used by Microsoft Office Communications Server to CTI messaging used by Cisco Unified Communications Manager, and vice versa
Answer: D

10. In which application are Cisco Unified Presence users licensed?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager administration
B. LDAP backend server administration
C. Cisco Unified Presence server administration
D. third-party administration
Answer: A

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642-164 Unified Communications Contact Center Express (UCCX)

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Free 642-164 Sample Questions:

1. Where do you enable the CRS engine?
A. Publisher Activation page
B. Component Activation page
C. Cluster Setup page
D. Server Setup page
Answer: B

2. When a valid SQL Query in a DB Read step returns 0 rows, which branch of the step will be executed?
A. Timeout
B. SQL Error
C. Successful
D. Connection Not Available
Answer: C

3. What three tasks are required to add a CRS application? (Choose three.)
A. create a trigger
B. create an application
C. restart the CRS engine
D. upload script to repository
E. configure default session timeout
Answer: A, B, D

4. CiscoWorks IP Telephony Environment Monitor (ITEM) provides what two serviceability capabilities? (Choose two.)
A. Tool to collect syslog messages from multiple sources
B. User Tracking to track IP telephones
C. Diagnostic trace tools to analyze connectivity
D. Monitoring of Cisco voice elements
E. Problem alerts for operations personnel
Answer: D, E

5. When would the Cisco Supervisor Desktop fail to show an agent that is logged in?
A. The agent is not ready.
B. The agent is not on a call.
C. The agent is an IP phone agent.
D. The agent is not in the team currently being viewed by the supervisor.
Answer: D

6. Where are CTI route points added or configured for Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?
A. Cisco Unified CallManager Device Configuration
B. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Directory Management
C. Cisco Supervisor Desktop
D. Cisco CRS Administration, JTAPI Trigger Creation
E. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Media Subsystem
Answer: D

7. What is a benefit of using subflows?
A. decreases the amount of flows
B. collects information about callers to agents
C. creates a framework for CRS Server status reporting
D. decreases latency through increased bandwidth on CRS Server
E. provides more efficient management of flows that are called by multiple other flows
Answer: E

8. What formula do you use to calculate the number of Voice Gateway ports?
A. Erlang A
B. Erlang B
C. Erlang C
D. IVR ports + agent phones
Answer: B

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Cheat-test 640-721 Certification Exam

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Free 640-721 Sample Questions:

Q: 1 What is fading?
A. Another signal source is producing energy on the channel in which you are trying to operate.
B. The desired signal reaches the receiving antenna via multiple paths, each of which has a different propagation delay and path loss.
C. A time-varying change in the path loss of a link with the time variance governed by the movement of objects in the environment, including the transmitter and receiver themselves.
D. A function of the frequency and should be provided in the cable specification by the vendor.
E. The minimum signal level for the receiver to be able to acceptably decode the information.
F. The time delay from the reception of the first instance of the signal until the last instance.
Answer: C

Q: 2 Which limitation applies to the use of the Cisco WLAN Solution Management over Wireless feature?
A. Controllers must be managed using only secure protocols (that is, SSH and HTTPS), not nonsecure protocols (that is, HTTP and Telnet).
B. Read-write access is not available; only read-only access is supported.
C. Uploads and downloads from the controller are not allowed.
D. Wireless clients can manage other controllers however not the same controller and AP to which the client is associated.
Answer: C

Q: 3 Up to how many Cisco WiSMs are supported in a single mobility group operating under v5.0 code?
A. 5
B. 12
C. 16
D. 24
E. 150
F. 300
Answer: B

Q: 4 The existing Cisco Unified Wireless Controller is running v5.0 code for both the controllers and the Cisco WCS. A controller has been configured with an appropriate rogue rule condition to report discovered APs to the Cisco WCS. What default alarm level is used to display all rogue APs in the Alarm Summary?
A. Critical
B. Flash
C. Major
D. Minor
E. Urgent
Answer: D

Q: 5 Cisco Client Management Frame Protection is running on a mobility group with two controllers. Which two MFP requirements protect the network? (Choose two.)
A. forces clients to authenticate, using a secure EAP method only
B. implements the validation of wireless management frames
C. requires CCXv5
D. requires the use of a nonbroadcast SSID
E. requires CCXv4
Answer: B, C

Q: 6 What is the result when client exclusion is enabled with a timeout value of zero?
A. Clients are excluded indefinitely.
B. Clients are never excluded.
C. Client exclusion is disabled.
D. Clients must be explicitly included by specifying the MAC address.
E. Exclusion and inclusion is determined by access list.
Answer: A

Q: 7 The central office is currently using a combination of 4400 and 2100 series WLAN controllers running v4.2 and a variety of LWAPP-enabled access points servicing both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. The WLAN deployment has been extended to each remote office by implementing a 526 WLAN controller running v4.1 and several 521 access points. Wireless client deployment uses EAP-TLS authentication using a centralized RADIUS server plus 802.11n for performance. After the first remote office deployment, remote office users complain that they are not connecting via 802.11n.
What is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. The 526 WLAN controller does not support external authentication via RADIUS, prohibiting authentication.
B. The 521 AP does not support 5 GHz, which prohibits 802.11n.
C. The 521 AP and 526 WLAN controllers do not support AES, which prohibits 802.11n.
D. The 526 WLAN controller does not support 802.11n with v4.1 and must be upgraded to v4.2.
E. The 526 WLAN controller does not support 802.11n with either v4.1 or v4.2.
Answer: E

Q: 8 How do the features that are available on the Cisco WCS for Linux version differ from those of the Cisco WCS for Windows version?
A. Assuming that there are no differences in hardware, a Cisco WCS for Linux can support up to 750 wireless LAN controllers. A Cisco WCS for Windows can support up to 250 wireless LAN controllers.
B. Cisco WCS for Windows includes support for Cisco Spectrum Expert clients. Cisco WCS for Linux does not support Cisco Spectrum Expert clients.
C. Cisco WCS for Linux is required for deployments.
D. There are no differences in features between the Linux and Windows versions of Cisco WCS.
Answer: D

Q: 9 Which CLI command shows the controller configuration in a way that is similar to the way that it is displayed on Cisco IOS routers?
A. show config
B. show run config
C. show run-config
D. show running config
E. show running-config
Answer: E

Q: 10 Which two attacks does Management Frame Protection help to mitigate? (Choose two.)
A. Eavesdropping
B. Denial of Service
C. War Driving
D. Man-in-the-Middle
Answer: B, D

Q: 11 Lightweight access points send control traffic to which device(s)?
A. Other access points.
B. The Wireless Control System.
C. The Wireless Controller.
D. Lightweight access points don't send control traffic.
Answer: C

Q: 12 Which three elements define the 802.11n implementation of MIMO? (Choose three.)
A. Channel Bonding
B. Dynamic Frequency Selection
C. Maximal Ratio Combining
D. Packet Aggregation
E. Spatial Multiplexing
F. Transmit Beam Forming
Answer: C, E, F

Q: 13 In the AP Layer 3 controller discovery process, after the LWAPP Discovery Request is broadcast on a local subnet, what is the next step that the AP takes?
A. Determine whether the controller responses are the primary controller.
B. Send an LWAPP discovery request to controllers learned via OTAP if operational.
C. Send an LWAPP response to the master controller if known.
D. Wait 5 seconds and resend a Discovery Request to the local subnet.
Answer: B

Q: 14 Effective Isotropic Radiated Power is calculated by using which three values? (Choose three.)
A. antenna bandwidth
B. antenna gain
C. cable loss
D. receiver sensitivity
E. SSID
F. transmission power
Answer: B, C, F

Q: 15 Which four file formats are used when importing a single campus map into the Cisco WCS 5.0? (Choose four.)
A. .BMP
B. .GIF
C. .JPEG
D. .JPG
E. .PNG
F. .VSD
G. .MAP
H. .XML
Answer: B, C, D, E

Q: 16 When creating a wireless profile in the Cisco ADU and you have selected the WPA/WPA2/CCKM radio button option, what other decision must you make and then configure on this same screen?
A. the address and the server secret of the authentication device you will authenticate with
B. the encryption type
C. the EAP type to be used for authentication
D. the length and value of the pre-shared key
E. the SSID of the wireless client
Answer: C

Q: 17 Drag and Drop

Answer:

Q: 18 Which roaming situation using controllers in a Cisco Unified Wireless Network requires a client using WPA2 with PKC to reauthenticate to the network?
A. A wireless client roams to another AP on a different controller in the same mobility domain.
B. A wireless client roams to another AP on the same controller.
C. A wireless client roams to another AP after being out of range of the network for 2 minutes.
D. A wireless client roams to another AP on a controller in a different mobility domain.
Answer: D

Q: 19 What three authentication methods are generally used in enterprise wireless networks? (Choose three.)
A. AES
B. CCKM
C. EAP-FAST
D. EAP-TLS
E. PEAP
F. WEP
Answer: C, D, E

Q: 20 A client is attached to the Cisco Unified Wireless network using controllers.
When the client is using WPA2 and EAP authentication, where are the wireless encryption keys located during the active user session? (Choose two.)
A. on the access point
B. on the RADIUS server
C. on the Cisco WCS
D. on the client
E. on the Cisco WLC
Answer: A, D

Q: 21 Which statement about an infrastructure basic service set is true according to IEEE 802.11 specifications?
A. Also called an Ad Hoc Network.
B. The BSSID is generated from the first wireless client that starts up in the IBSS.
C. Enables the use of ESS.
D. No relaying of signals from one client to another client.
Answer: C

Q: 22 What increases bandwidth and resists multipath problems by carrying data in subcarriers?
A. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum
B. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum
C. Narrow Band Frequency
D. Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing
Answer: D

Q: 23 When creating new configuration profiles in Cisco Secure Services Client, in what format are the files saved?
A. .RTF
B. .HTML
C. .TXT
D. .XML
E. .XTML
Answer: D

Q: 24 A controller is connected to a Cisco IOS Catalyst switch. The following is the switch port configuration:
interface GigabitEthernet 1/0/10
switchport
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,20,30,50
switchport trunk native vlan 20
switchport mode trunk
Which controller CLI command assigns its management interface to the Cisco IOS Catalyst switch native vlan interface?
A. config interface vlan management 0
B. config interface vlan management 1
C. config interface vlan management 20
D. config interface vlan management 30
E. config interface vlan management 50
Answer: A

Q: 25 What two statements about beacon frames used by access points are true? (Choose two.)
A. contains SSIDs if this feature is enabled
B. provides vendor proprietary information
C. is another name for an associated request
D. sent in response to a probe frame
E. includes ATIM window information for power save operations
Answer: A, B

Q: 26 Why does Cisco recommend using Tftpd32 version 3.0 or later when upgrading wireless LAN controller software to release 4.1 or later?
A. Tftpd32 is a component of CiscoWorks LMS
B. Tftpd32 supports TFTP file transfers larger than 32 MB
C. Tftpd32 is Cisco Compatible Extensions version 4 compliant
D. Tftpd32 supports EoIP tunneling which is required for remote Cisco WLC upgrades
Answer: B

Q: 27 Which set of commands assigns a standalone access point an IP address of 10.0.0.24 with a 27-bit subnet mask and a gateway of 10.0.0.1?
A. config t
interface BVI1
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.192
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
B. config t
interface BVI1
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.224
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
C. config t
interface FastEthernet1
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.224
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
D. config t
interface Dot11Radio0
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.224
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
E. config t
interface FastEthernet1
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.192
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
F. config t
interface Dot11Radio0
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.192
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
Answer: B

Q: 28 If you have the Cisco ADU installed but want to use the Windows Zero Config utility to configure a wireless network profile, what must you do first?
A. Define a common profile in both the Cisco ADU and WZC.
B. Define the wireless profile in the Wireless Networks tab in WZC.
C. In the WZC utility, make sure that the box labeled "Use Windows to configure my Wireless Network Settings" is checked.
D. Uninstall the Cisco ADU.
Answer: C

Q: 29 How are application-specific devices differentiated from laptop computers in the way they support Cisco Compatible Extensions?
A. ASDs are required to support only CCXv1 and v2 features. Laptops must support all CCX features.
B. ASDs are required to support only CCXv5 management features, while laptops are optional features.
C. Several features that are required for laptops are not required for ASDs.
D. There is no differentiation. ASDs and laptops must both support the same CCX features.
Answer: C

Q: 30 When choosing an EAP type for your Cisco ADU security profile, what must you ensure to authenticate successfully?
A. that the client and authentication server support the same encryption protocol
B. that the EAP type selected is known not to exchange any of its credentials in the clear
C. that the EAP type that you selected is supported by the authentication server
D. that the time set on the clocks for the wireless client and the authenticator are close to the same time
E. that WEP is not selected
Answer: C

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Free 640-553 Sample Questions:

1. As a network engineer at XXYYinc.com, you are responsible for XXYYinc network. Which will be necessarily taken into consideration when implementing Syslogging in your network?
A. Log all messages to the system buffer so that they can be displayed when accessing the router.
B. Use SSH to access your Syslog information.
C. Enable the highest level of Syslogging available to ensure you log all possible event messages.
D. Syncronize clocks on the network with a protocol such as Network Time Protocol.
Answer: D

2. Which classes does the U.S. government place classified data into? (Choose three.)
A. SBU
B. Confidential
C. Secret
D. Top­secret
Answer: B, C, D

3. You are a network technician at XXYYinc.com. Which description is correct when you have generated RSA keys on your Cisco router to prepare for secure device management?
A. All vty ports are automatically enabled for SSH to provide secure management.
B. The SSH protocol is automatically enabled.
C. You must then zeroize the keys to reset secure shell before configuring other parameters.
D. You must then specify the general­purpose key size used for authentication with the crypto key generate rsa general­keys modulus command.
Answer: B

4. Which method is of gaining access to a system that bypasses normal security measures?
A. Creating a back door
B. Starting a Smurf attack
C. Conducting social engineering
D. Launching a DoS attack
Answer: A

5. As a candidate for CCNA examination, when you are familiar with the basic commands, if you input the command "enable secret level 5 password" in the global mode , what does it indicate?
A. Set the enable secret command to privilege level 5.
B. The enable secret password is hashed using SHA.
C. The enable secret password is hashed using MD5.
D. The enable secret password is encrypted using Cisco proprietary level 5 encryption. E.The enable secret password is for accessing exec privilege level 5.
Answer: E

6. Which statement is true about a Smurf attack?
A. It sends ping requests to a subnet, requesting that devices on that subnet send ping replies to a target system.
B. It intercepts the third step in a TCP three­way handshake to hijack a session.
C. It uses Trojan horse applications to create a distributed collection of "zombie" computers, which can be used to launch a coordinated DDoS attack.
D. It sends ping requests in segments of an invalid size.
Answer: A

7. Please choose the correct description about Cisco Self­Defending Network characteristics.

A. INTEGRATED ­ XY1 COLLABORATIVE ­ XY2 ADAPTIVE ­ XY3
B. INTEGRATED ­ XY2 COLLABORATIVE ­ XY1 ADAPTIVE ­ XY3
C. INTEGRATED ­ XY2 COLLABORATIVE ­ XY3 ADAPTIVE ­ XY1
D. INTEGRATED ­ XY3 COLLABORATIVE ­ XY2 ADAPTIVE ­ XY1
Answer: B

8. Which three items are Cisco best­practice recommendations for securing a network? (Choose three.)
A. Deploy HIPS software on all end­user workstations.
B. Routinely apply patches to operating systems and applications.
C. Disable unneeded services and ports on hosts.
D. Require strong passwords, and enable password expiration.
Answer: B, C, D

9. With the increasing development of network, various network attacks appear. Which statement best describes the relationships between the attack method and the result?

A. Ping Sweep ­ XY1 and XY3 Port Scan ­ XY2, XY4 and XY5
B. Ping Sweep ­ XY2 and XY4 Port Scan ­ XY1, XY3 and XY5
C. Ping Sweep ­ XY1 and XY5 Port Scan ­ XY2, XY3 and XY4
D. Ping Sweep ­ XY2 and XY3 Port Scan ­ XY1, XY4 and XY5
Answer: B

10. For the following attempts, which one is to ensure that no one employee becomes a pervasive security threat, that data can be recovered from backups, and that information system changes do not compromise a system's security?
A. Disaster recovery
B. Strategic security planning
C. Implementation security
D. Operations security
Answer: D

11. For the following options ,which one accurately matches the CLI command(s) to the equivalent SDM wizard that performs similar configuration functions?
A. setup exec command and the SDM Security Audit wizard
B. auto secure exec command and the SDM One­Step Lockdown wizard
C. aaa configuration commands and the SDM Basic Firewall wizard
D. Cisco Common Classification Policy Language configuration commands and the SDM Site­to­Site VPN wizard
Answer: B

12. Which three options are network evaluation techniques? (Choose three.)
A. Scanning a network for active IP addresses and open ports on those IP addresses
B. Using password­cracking utilities
C. Performing end­user training on the use of antispyware software
D. Performing virus scans
Answer: A, B, D

13. Which is the main difference between host­based and network­based intrusion prevention?
A. Network­based IPS is better suited for inspection of SSL and TLS encrypted data flows.
B. Host­based IPS can work in promiscuous mode or inline mode.
C. Network­based IPS can provide protection to desktops and servers without the need of installing specialized software on the end hosts and servers.
D. Host­based IPS deployment requires less planning than network­based IPS.
Answer: C

14. Which one is the most important based on the following common elements of a network design?
A. Business needs
B. Best practices
C. Risk analysis
D. Security policy
Answer: A

15. Given the exhibit below. You are a network manager of your company. You are reading your Syslog server reports. On the basis of the Syslog message shown, which two descriptions are correct? (Choose two.)

A. This message is a level 5 notification message.
B. This message is unimportant and can be ignored.
C. This is a normal system­generated information message and does not require further investigation.
D. Service timestamps have been globally enabled.
Answer: A, D

16. Examine the following items, which one offers a variety of security solutions, including firewall, IPS, VPN, antispyware, antivirus, and antiphishing features?
A. Cisco 4200 series IPS appliance
B. Cisco ASA 5500 series security appliance
C. Cisco IOS router
D. Cisco PIX 500 series security appliance
Answer: B

17. The enable secret password appears as an MD5 hash in a router's configuration file, whereas the enable password is not hashed (or encrypted, if the password­encryption service is not enabled). What is the reason that Cisco still support the use of both enable secret and enable passwords in a router's configuration?
A. The enable password is used for IKE Phase I, whereas the enable secret password is used for IKE Phase II.
B. The enable password is considered to be a router's public key, whereas the enable secret password is considered to be a router's private key.
C. Because the enable secret password is a hash, it cannot be decrypted. Therefore, the enable password is used to match the password that was entered, and the enable secret is used to verify that the enable password has not been modified since the hash was generated.
D. The enable password is present for backward compatibility.
Answer: D

18 .How does CLI view differ from a privilege level?
A. A CLI view supports only commands configured for that specific view, whereas a privilege level supports commands available to that level and all the lower levels.
B. A CLI view supports only monitoring commands, whereas a privilege level allows a user to make changes to an IOS configuration.
C. A CLI view and a privilege level perform the same function. However, a CLI view is used on a Catalyst switch, whereas a privilege level is used on an IOS router.
D. A CLI view can function without a AAA configuration, whereas a privilege level requires AAA to be configured.
Answer: A

19. When configuring Cisco IOS login enhancements for virtual connections, what is the "quiet period"?
A. A period of time when no one is attempting to log in
B. The period of time in which virtual logins are blocked as security services fully initialize
C. The period of time in which virtual login attempts are blocked, following repeated failed login attempts
D. The period of time between successive login attempts
Answer: C

20. Which result is of securing the Cisco IOS image by use of the Cisco IOS image resilience feature?
A. When the router boots up, the Cisco IOS image will be loaded from a secured FTP location.
B. The Cisco IOS image file will not be visible in the output from the show flash command.
C. The show version command will not show the Cisco IOS image file location.
D. The running Cisco IOS image will be encrypted and then automatically backed up to a TFTP server.
Answer: B

21. Which three statements are valid SDM configuration wizards? (Choose three.)
A. Security Audit
B. VPN
C. STP
D. NAT
Answer: A, B, D

22. How do you define the authentication method that will be used with AAA?
A. With a method list
B. With the method command
C. With the method aaa command
D. With a method statement
Answer: A

23. Which one of the following commands can be used to enable AAA authentication to determine if a user can access the privilege command level?
A. aaa authentication enable default local
B. aaa authentication enable level
C. aaa authentication enable method default
D. aaa authentication enable default
Answer: D

24. What is the objective of the aaa authentication login console­in local command?
A. It specifies the login authorization method list named console­in using the local RADIUS username­password database.
B. It specifies the login authorization method list named console­in using the local username­password database on the router.
C. It specifies the login authentication method list named console­in using the local user database on the router.
D. It specifies the login authentication list named console­in using the local username­ password database on the router.
Answer: C

25. Which description is true about the show login command output displayed in the exhibit?

A. All logins from any sources are blocked for another 193 seconds.
B. The login block­for command is configured to block login hosts for 93 seconds.
C. When the router goes into quiet mode, any host is permitted to access the router via Telnet, SSH, and HTTP, since the quiet­mode access list has not been configured.
D. Three or more login requests have failed within the last 100 seconds.
Answer: D

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